Saturday, March 19, 2022

PASSOVER #5--- ALL YOU NEED TO KNOW--- AND MORE!

 THE  PROBLEM  OF  EXODUS  12: 18


THIS  VERSE  HAS  GIVEN  TROUBLE  TO  MANY  AS  TO  HOW  TO  UNDERSTAND  IT.

IT  SOUNDS  LIKE  8  DAYS  OF  UNLEAVENED  BREAD.

I  DID  GIVE  ONE  ANSWER  IN  ONE  STUDY  I  DID  MANY  YEARS  AGO.

BUT  A  STILL  SMALL  VOICE  HAS  TOLD  ME  TO  MEDITATE  ON  IT  AGAIN.

AND.... WOW  YES,  OF  COURSE!

WE  DO  EAT  UNLEAVENED  BREAD  ON  THE  14TH--- THE  NIGHT  OF  THE  PASSOVER  CELEBRATION!

SO  HENCE  WE  DO  IN  FACT  EAT  UNLEAVENED  BREAD  FROM  THE  14  TO THE  21.

NOW  THE  VERSE  DOES  NOT  SAY  THE  14  IS  PART  OF  THE  7  DAY  FEAST OF  UNLEAVENED  BREAD;  THE  NEXT  VERSE  AND  OTHER  VERSES  IN  THE  BOOKS  OF  MOSES,  SHOW  THE  FEAST  OF  UNLEAVENED  BREAD  IS  7  DAYS  LONG,  NOT 8.  AND  THOSE  DAYS  ARE  STRICTLY  7  DAYS  OF  NOT  EATING  LEAVENED  BREAD,  BUT  ONLY  UN-LEAVENED  BREAD.

THE  14  IS  NOWHERE  CALLED  A  DAY  OF  ONLY  UNLEAVENED  BREAD.

WE  HAVE  SEEN  THERE  ARE  8  DAYS  TO  THE  SPRING  FEAST,  OR  I  SHOULD  SAY  TO  THE  2  SPRING  FEASTS---- PASSOVER  DAY  AND  FEAST  OF  UNLEAVENED  BREAD.  SEPARATE  FEASTS.

ALL  THAT  THIS  SINGLE  VERSE  SAYS  IS  HOW  MANY  DAYS  WE  ARE  EATING  UNLEAVENED  BREAD.

WE  EAT  UNLEAVENED  BREAD  FOR  THE  PASSOVER,  AS  OTHER  VERSES  TELL  US  THE  PASSOVER  CEREMONY  MUST  BE  EATEN  WITH  UN-LEAVENED  BREAD.

THEN  THE  NEXT  VERSE  AND  OTHERS,  TELL  US  ABOUT  THE  7  DAY  FEAST  OF  UNLEAVENED  BREAD.

NOW  THAT  IS  THE  EASY  SIMPLE  UNDERSTANDING  OF  VERSE  18.

WE  EAT  UNLEAVENED  BREAD  ON  THE  14  AND  OUT  INTO  THE  15  TO  THE  21  OF  THE  FEAST  OF  UNLEAVENED  BREAD.

OTHER  VERSES  GIVE  INSTRUCTION  AS  TO  THE  14  DAY  AND  THE  DAYS  FROM  THE  15  TO  THE  21.

....................


PASSOVER
                    UNDERSTANDINGS
                   

             DID JESUS OBSERVE THE PASSOVER
              OR SOMETHING NEW JUST BEFORE
                                 HIS DEATH?

 

Written March 1997 
by

          Keith Hunt 

     Jesus did not observe the Passover before His death, yet He
did observe the Passover, but then it was not, for it was
something new He kept with His disciples the previous evening to
the Passover, some will say. And further to add still more to the
fire, some believe that this Passover that was not really the
Passover, but was the Passover, was observed WITHOUT the lamb
being sacrificed.

     To illustrate the above I will quote from, for no other
reason than it is one of the latest new books out concerning
God's festivals, and gives us all of the above that I have
mentioned that many believe. The book is called: GOD'S FESTIVALS
- In Scripture and History. The author is Dr. Samuele
Bacchiocchi, who is more famous for his work FROM SABBATH TO
SUNDAY. All emphasis and CAPITALS are mine.

     Quote: page 55.

     ".......according to the Gospel of John, Jesus was crucified
on the day the Passover lamb was sacrificed(John 19:14; 18:28),
Nisan 14. This means He ate the Last Supper with His disciples
the day before the OFFICIAL Passover meal(this was the Passover
meal observed by the Pharisees and their followers at the end of
the 14th day, official in the sense that the lambs were slain in
the Temple by the Priesthood, and that most of Judah followed
this custom and tradition. This so called "official" Passover did
not automatically make it scriptural - K. Hunt). In this case,
Jesus' meal with His disciples MAY HAVE BEEN EITHER a specially
arranged Passover meal or a farewell fellowship meal UNRELATED to
the Passover, because it was partaken of the evening before the
OFFICIAL Passover......"

     Page 56.

     "An Early Passover Meal. A PLAUSIBLE resolution of the
discrepancy is to ASSUME that the Last Supper was a special
paschal meal eaten the evening before the OFFICIAL Passover
meal.......Jesus knew He would suffer death at Passover in
fulfilment of the type provided by the slaying of the paschal
lamb on the 14. He knew He could not possibly eat of the paschal
lamb at the USUAL TIME and Himself be sacrificed as the
true Paschal Lamb WHEN THE LAMBS WERE SLAIN.(remember Dr. B is
talking about the slaying of the lambs at the usual time in the
Temple by the Priesthood on the afternoon of the 14th. We have
seen in previous studies this was not when the Passover lamb was
slain in Exodus 12 - K.Hunt).........Jesus anticipated His eating
of the PASSOVER with His disciples to the evening before the
OFFICIAL Passover......(see how Dr.B calls what Jesus did the
evening before the official Passover - the Passover -
K.Hunt).........Christ's awareness that His death would occur on
Passover day COULD HAVE CAUSED Him to anticipate His last paschal
meal with His disciples a DAY EARLIER......"(again Dr.B says what
Jesus ate with His disciples was a "paschal meal" - K.Hunt).

     Page 57.

     ".......This explains the SENSE OF URGENCY in the
instructions Jesus gave to His disciples: 'Go into the city to a
certain one, and say to him, The Teacher says, My time
is at hand; I will keep the passover at your house with my
disciples' (Matt.26:18). (I want you to remember what he states.
Jesus was in a sense of urgency. Later as we read the context to
this I want you to note if it was Jesus who spoke first about
observing the Passover or if it was His disciples first, and they
who were in a sense of urgency and NOT Jesus - K.Hunt). The
phrase 'My time is at hand' presumably refers to the short time
left to Passover when the 'Son of man will be delivered up to be
crucified.' Because of such shortness of time, HASTY ARRANGEMENTS
HAD TO BE MADE FOR A SPECIAL PASSOVER MEAL......"(once more I
want you to remember what Dr.B has written here. As we look at
the accounts in the Gospels later, we shall see if it really was
that hasty in arrangements, or if everything was ready for them
in the room to prepare the Passover. Notice also Dr. B calls it a
"Passover meal" but....."special" - K.Hunt).

     continuing same page:

     "........Jesus knew in advance of His impending death at
Passover and, consequently, He showed His love towards His
disciples by ARRANGING FOR AN EARLY PASCHAL SUPPER, at which,
among other things, He washed His disciples' feet.......In this
case it was the foreknowledge of the occurrence of His death
......that COULD HAVE led Jesus to arrange for an EARLY PASCHAL
meal with His disciples......."(so far Dr.B is still calling this
early meal a "paschal meal" - K. Hunt).

     Page 58.

     "Last Supper in the Synoptic Gospels..........IF the Last
Supper was simply a FAREWELL FELLOWSHIP MEAL during which Jesus
instituted the Holy Communion, then the latter is NOT LINKED TO
THE PASSOVER FESTIVAL, but is a BRAND-NEW rite instituted by
Christ to commemorate His death. In this case, Passover CAME TO
AN END when Jesus died on the cross as the true Paschal Lamb, and
the Lord's Supper must be seen as a NEW INSTITUTION TOTALLY
UNRELATED to Passover(I would agree with all he says here -
K.Hunt).......The synoptic Gospels CONSISTENTLY and REPEATEDLY
speak of the last Supper as 'the Passover'...........The phrase
'to eat the passover' which occurs again in Jesus' instructions
to His disciples(Mark 14:15; Matt.26:18; Luke 22:11), refers
EXCLUSIVELY to the PASSOVER meal, which was the essence of the
celebration of the festival......"(what Dr.B shows and proves
here is that the synoptic Gospels call the meal Jesus and His
disciples partook of as THE PASSOVER, plain and simple. Nothing
is said about it being something new or even an evening earlier
than when Jesus normally observed it - K.Hunt).

     So far we have a MAYBE, a POSSIBILITY, that this meal Jesus
was having with His disciples was a NEW institution, the evening
before the so called "official" Passover meal. Yet as Dr.B shows
from the synoptic Gospels there is NO indication from them that
this meal was ANYTHING OTHER than the "eating of the Passover."
     Now on to the idea that at this last Passover meal there was
NO lamb sacrificed and eaten.

     Page 66-67.

     "Passover Meal Without the Lamb. So far I have argued that
the Last Supper was part of a real Passover meal with the lamb,
though it was partaken of a day earlier because Jesus knew His
crucifixion would take place at the time of the slaying of the
paschal lambs. I have SUGGESTED that such a meal could have been
eaten a day earlier with a lamb........Without discounting this
conclusion, we should consider ANOTHER POSSIBILITY, namely, that
the last Supper was a SPECIAL Passover meal not ONLY because it
was partaken of a day earlier, but also because the item which
gave the most significance to the meal, the paschal lamb, WAS
LACKING........POSSIBLY Jesus wanted His last Passover Supper
with His disciples to be eaten WITHOUT THE LAMB to impress upon
them the fact that He was their Paschal Lamb. Therefore, He
COULD HAVE planned that they celebrate Passover not by eating the
flesh of the lamb and pouring out its blood at the Temple's
altar, but by partaking symbolically of His own flesh and blood,
their true Paschal Lamb........MAYBE Jesus instructed His
disciples to prepare the Passover meal without the lamb because
He wanted to impress upon them that He Himself was their Paschal
Lamb that would be sacrificed the next day. He wanted to
institute a new Passover to commemorate deliverance from the
bondage of sin through the sacrifice of Himself, the true Paschal
lamb. As such, there was no need of a roasted lamb for the new
Passover meal. The bread and wine, symbols of His body and blood,
were sufficient......"

     So we have words like "another possibility" - "possibly" -
"could have" - "maybe" and some human reasoning. No scripture is
given to support this "another possibility" for as we shall see
as we investigate in-depth the accounts of the synoptic Gospels,
they PLAINLY record Jesus and the disciples ATE the Passover. And
eating the Passover, using such language, would have
automatically in any mind of a Jew meant just that - eating the
Passover, the lamb being the central eating of the Passover.


           LET'S INVESTIGATE THE SYNOPTIC GOSPELS

     Our first question we need to ask and answer is: Did Jesus'
disciples KNOW IN ADVANCE this meal was going to be a SPECIAL
EARLY Passover meal? 

     IF Jesus had previously told His disciples that they were
not going to observe the Passover towards the END of the 14th as
they usually did with Him(supposing for the sake of argument that
was the time they had always observed it with Jesus as the
original correct time going back to Exodus 12), IF He had
beforehand told them He was going to have an early Passover day
supper with them, as He had tried to tell them that this
Passover was the time when He was to be betrayed and crucified.
IF He had said these things to them to make it plain what was
going to happen on this special 14th day, the day He would die,
then surely somewhere, by at least one of the four Gospel
writers, there would have been words recorded for us that Jesus
DID TELL THEM they would be having a new early Passover supper in
which the New Covenant symbols of foot washing, bread and wine,
would be instituted as a memorial of His death for the sins of
the world. 
     Jesus had told them He was going to be betrayed and
crucified at the coming Passover. That previous foretelling of
Christ to His disciples IS recorded for us. Surely IF He had told
them in advance about His RADICLE(and believe me it would have
been a radicle undertaking to depart from the official and true
time, if it was the true time, to observe the Passover) CHANGE to
have a new and early Passover supper, THEN SOME WORDS SOMEWHERE
WOULD HAVE BEEN RECORDED FOR US THAT HE DID TELL HIS DISCIPLES
ABOUT WHAT HE WAS PLANNING TO OBSERVE AND INSTITUTE WITH THEMAT THE BEGINNING OF THE 14TH!! 
     YET NOT ONE WRITER COMES ANYWHERE CLOSE TO SAYING JESUS  
HAD BEFOREHAND TOLD HIS DISCIPLES ABOUT ANY NEW EARLY 
 PASSOVER  SUPPER!! 
     Nowhere can we find any words such as: "My fellow disciples,
come here, I want to tell you what we are going to do on the
Passover day this year. As I am going to be betrayed and
crucified to death on the afternoon, as I've already told you, as
I will not be able to observe the Passover meal with you at the
end of the 14th as we have previously done. Because of this, we
shall have a special Passover meal at the beginning of the day.
It will become the New Covenant memorial service in remembrance
of my death."
     No such words as the above can be found in the New
Testament. Nothing even remotely close to them can be found. I
submit to you that something as IMPORTANT as the introduction and
institution of a NEW Passover memorial service at the BEGINNING
of the 14th. A service to commemorate and remember the BODY and
BLOOD of one who was God, given for the sins of all human kind,
WOULD NOT HAVE GONE UNRECORDED for us. Some NT writer somewhere
would have surely been inspired to have written about THIS NEW(IF
IT WAS NEW) MEMORIAL SERVICE, in the sense of telling us it was
INDEED NEW AND AT A NEW TIME OF THE 14TH. 
     But the NT is SILENT about any such idea as it being a NEW
Passover supper, meal, or memorial service, from the point of
TIME!

     Jesus had told them He was going to be handed over to the
authorities and crucified. But I as proved to you in the first
study in this series, IT WENT COMPLETELY OVER THEIR HEADS! They
could not grasp it, could not understand it, could not believe
it. And why should they. As I showed you before, it was not in
the theology of the Jews and their religions to acquaint the
Passover lamb and its death to the Messiah to come and the death
of that Messiah. Such thoughts were the furthest thing from their
mind.
They could only see a Messiah that would live and lead the Jews
to overthrow the Roman Empire and establish the Jewish nation as
leader in the world under God.  They could not envision a
suffering and dying Messiah.
     The coming Passover was for them going to be no different
than other Passover days they had observed with Jesus. He was all
powerful, why even the very forces of nature obeyed Him. The
words of Jesus that He would be betrayed and crucified just
went right over their heads.
     While they were at supper and Jesus told them one of them
was going to betray Him, they were in utter shock at the thought
of such a thing. Peter was so sure he would stand with Him. Peter
even drew his sword in the garden and sliced off the ear of one
coming to arrest Jesus. He was ready to fight. They no doubt
thought this was the time when God through the Messiah was going
to restore the Kingdom to Israel, deliver Israel again at the
Passover season from bondage to their captors. As the events
unfolded before their eyes, they were numb with shock and
confusion, running away, and Peter even denying he knew this man
Jesus.
     The following day as Jesus hung on the cross dying, they
were crying, bewildered, their world had it seemed come to an
end. They just did not know what was going on. How could their
Messiah with all the power He had exhibited through hundreds of
miracles they had seen Him perform over three and one half years,
be up on that cross dying before their eyes. It must have seemed
like the worst science horror movie that anyone could have
dreamed up.
     All of this as recorded in the Gospels cannot possibly give
any credible proof, actually just the opposite, to any idea that
the disciples KNEW BEFOREHAND, understood beforehand, that Jesus
was the Passover lamb to be slain, that the new memorial
service(without a lamb as some think it was) at the new time of
the beginning of the 14th(going along with the false idea that
the Passover had always originally been at the end of the 14th),
they had beforehand been told they would celebrate, was all to
be taken in stride, as they knew it was to fulfil the prophecies
concerning the fist coming of the Messiah.
     As Jesus hung on the cross to die there are no words coming
from the disciples as saying: "Oh, do not fret about all this,
for we know it was written so, that it must be so. We know the
Messiah is to die and be raised again to eternal life the third
day. Let us not cry, or be shaken in spirit, we understand this
is to fulfil prophecy, and so we will look to the next prophecies
that tell us about His resurrection."

     After Jesus had been put in the garden tomb as a dead man,
they thought it was all over. Peter wanted to go back fishing.
The ladies coming on that Sunday morning did not realize He had
been resurrected, they were concerned about how they could roll
away the stone to anoint His body. When they arrived and found
the stone rolled away, they were confused, they did not say, "Oh
of course we know He is resurrected." The angels at the tomb HAD
TO TELL THEM Jesus was resurrected as He had told them He would
be!  One of the ladies thinking she was talking to the gardener
pleaded with him to tell her where they had removed Jesus' body.
Then He revealed to her who He was! 
     The ladies were to go tell the 12 disciples Jesus was risen.
They did not expect it to happen. Thomas still did not believe it
even after the others had seen Jesus for themselves. The two
disciples on the road to Emmaus could not put it together, they
were bewildered and confused over it all. Jesus had to reprimand
them for being slow of heart to believe all that the prophets had
spoken about the Messiah.

     What all this CLEARLY SHOWS is that whatever had been told
them beforehand by Jesus concerning His coming death and
resurrection, it went in one ear and out the other. There is no
indication from THEIR SIDE that they knew Jesus was going to have
an early Passover supper with them because He would be dead on
the afternoon of the 14th. No indication from THEM that they knew
Jesus was going to institute a new memorial service with new
symbols at a new time of the 14th.
     As we shall clearly find in the synoptic Gospels ALL
EVIDENCE is that they thought they were going to have a regular
PASSOVER MEAL, at the USUAL TIME of the 14th, in the usual manner
with Jesus AS THEY HAD ALWAYS DONE with Him over the three and
one half years they had followed Him. It was just a casual matter
of fact question on their part, "where will you that we prepare
for you to eat the passover?"

     Second question:

     Is there any place in the Gospels where we can find some
words of Christ Himself telling His disciples that they would on
this Passover day in which He would be betrayed and crucified,
have a special early Passover fellowship meal together. Can we
find where He told them this last Passover was going to be
DIFFERENT, different in many respects but especially WHEN they
would eat together, and the new symbols He would introduce to
them for the New Covenant era?
     Please read the last few chapters of each Gospel. See if you
can find any words similar to or even close to something like
this: "I must tell you fellows that this coming Passover day will
be quite different than any Passover day you have ever
experienced. For starters, we shall celebrate the Passover meal
the evening before, at the beginning of the 14th and not the end
of the 14th, and then........."

     We can see the writers of the Gospels did not record that
THEY or any DISCIPLE said they knew that this last Passover Jesus
was to celebrate while on earth was going to be DIFFERENT than
all the others they had observed with Jesus, EXCEPT that Christ
had told them beforehand that at this Passover He was to be
betrayed and crucified. And THAT WAS ALL they recorded for us
that Jesus told them!  There are no words, or even any hints,
that Christ mentioned ANYTHING about a DIFFERENT TIME to have the
Passover meal or fellowship gathering, or farewell without a lamb
sacrifice, get together.

     Third question:

     Was it JESUS who was in a state of or "sense of urgency" in
the instructions He gave to His disciples about WHERE to observe
the Passover, OR is the truth more in keeping with it being the
DISCIPLES that were in a state of panic and urgency TOWARDS Jesus
as to observing the Passover which was UPON THEM as the 14th of
Nisan had arrived?
     Is the truth more that Jesus was NOT CONCERNED, in no state
of panic or any sense of URGENCY, about observing the Passover,
as He KNEW where they would observe it, and that all was made
ready for Him and His disciples?
     Who APPROACHED who about observing the Passover?  Was it
Jesus coming to His disciples in a sense of urgency, or was it
the disciples coming to Jesus with some urgent panic in their
mind, concerning the observance of the Passover?
     The word of the Lord gives us the answer if we will but read
it and believe it for what it plainly states to us.

     Matthew 26:17 tells us: ".....the DISCIPLES CAME TO JESUS,
saying unto Him, Where will you that we prepare for you to eat
the Passover?"
     Mark 14:12 says: "......His DISCIPLES said TO HIM......"
     Luke 22:7,8 gives that Jesus sent Peter and John to prepare
the Passover.

     From the above the evidence is that the DISCIPLES first came
to Jesus on the day, at the very beginning of the day when the
Passover lambs were killed to ask Jesus WHERE they should prepare
to eat the Passover.
     The evidence is that Jesus had said NOTHING to them about
the place where they would observe the Passover meal, and when
the time came they could no longer contain themselves in THEIR
state of urgency, but had to enquire from the Lord as to where
they should go to prepare the Passover meal.

     Fourth question:

     Did Jesus have everything under control as to knowing not
only WHERE they would observe the Passover, but ALSO that many
physical preparations had already been done for them so no panic
was needed by anyone? All would go as it had in the past years of
observing the Passover with Christ.

     Matthew 26:18-19 Jesus sends them to a certain man to tell
him that they would observe the Passover in his house.
     Mark 14:13-16 adds a little more for us. A man carrying
water was very unusual to see, as it was mainly women who did
such things. They were to follow him. He would lead them to the
house and the guestchamber where they would eat the Passover.
They were shown a large upper room, and notice it, FURNISHED AND
PREPARED!
     Luke 22:8-13 says about the same as Mark.

     Clearly all was well under control. Jesus was in no state of
urgency or panic!  He knew exactly where He would observe the
Passover with His disciples. He knew the room was all furnished
and ready. Had the man of the house been told in a dream? Had God
sent an angel to tell him Jesus would observe the Passover at his
home in his upper room? The word does not tell us!  But we can
see the man was not "put out" or upset because he was not ready
for such a group of men to come for the Passover. Whatever
can be said or imagined as to how this was all done, the fact is
clear that all was prepared for Jesus' disciples to come and
prepare the Passover.

     Fifth question:

     Is there anything stated in the synoptic Gospels that show
this was SOMETHING OTHER than "the passover"?  Is there anything
said to show it was an "early Passover" or a "farewell meal" or a
"last supper together" gathering?

     Matthew 26:17-19. The disciples come to Jesus saying:
".....Where will you that we PREPARE for you to eat THE
PASSOVER." Jesus tells them to tell the man of the house that He
will "keep THE PASSOVER at your house."  The disciples did as
Jesus had appointed them and "they MADE READY THE PASSOVER."
     Pretty plain easy to understand words to me - Jesus and His
disciples were observing THE PASSOVER!
     Mark 14:13-16 gives us PASSOVER in verse 12, and in verse
14, and once more in verse 16.
     Luke 22:8-13 they prepared the Passover, they were going to
observe in the guest-chamber "the Passover" and they made ready
"the Passover."
     Notice verse 15, "And He said unto them, With desire I have
desired to eat THIS PASSOVER with you before I suffer."
     
     Simple if you read it as a little child. Jesus and His
disciples were observing THE PASSOVER and at the BEGINNING OF THE
14TH, just as we have proved in previous studies, the first and
original Passover in Exodus 12 was to be slain and observed at
dusk, and eaten that night of the 14th. How easy to understand
when you put aside the traditions of Judaism that made none
effect the laws and commandments of God.
     The disciples had no idea what was going to take place on
this Passover day. They had not yet come to understand Jesus was
the true Passover lamb that would die on the 14th of Nisan. They
were not expecting Him to die. They were going ahead observing a
Passover meal that to them was just one more in the process of
time as the years went by, no different than the others they had
observed with Him. It was THE Passover, at the beginning of the
14th as ever before in all the years they had observed it, some
with John the Baptist, as part of his disciples, and now for
three and a half years with Jesus as part of His disciples.
     It was THE Passover as the synoptic Gospel writers plainly
and clearly record, no new time, no different than ones
previously observed by Jesus......well it was no different
UNTIL the night proceeded along and Jesus Himself started to make
it quite different by the things He began to do and introduce to
them, as to how the Passover would for Christians become quite
different under the New Covenant, in the way it would be observed
and the symbols it would contain.

     Sixth question:

     Did they EAT the Passover meal with the lamb?  Just because
the lamb is not specifically mentioned by name really does not
prove anything as to the idea that at this last Passover meal
Jesus may not have called for the sacrificing of a lamb, the idea
Dr.B throws at us on pages 66,67 of his book "God's Festivals."
     Looking at the verses already given in Matthew, Mark and
Luke, we can see the word EAT used over and over again.
     In Luke 22:15 Jesus says , ".....With desire I have desired
to EAT THIS PASSOVER with you...."
     The whole ceremony, observance and keeping of the Passover
under Moses, as given in the books of Moses, was fundamentally
bound up and founded upon the main element of the
observance(besides the slaying of the lamb) and that was the
EATING of the lamb. The Passover was not completely and fully
observed WITHOUT the EATING of the lamb. It is not the purpose of
this study to go into detail to prove that point. Fred Coulter in
his book called "The Christian Passover" gives forth that
detailed proof, which the reader can study for himself/herself.

     The Passover meal would not have been a meal or supper
WITHOUT the EATING of the lamb. This last Passover was called a
supper by the writers of the Gospels. It was very much a SUPPER
MEAL, and Jesus desired to EAT this Passover with His disciples
before He suffered and was killed on the cross.

     There is nothing in the Gospels to indicate the disciples
did not prepare this Passover supper meal as they would have any
other Passover meal they had observed with Jesus in the past.
They did not know it would be His last on this earth. They did
not know He was to die the next afternoon. They asked Him where
they should go to "prepare the Passover" and nothing is stated by
Jesus to give them any idea it was not another regular Passover
meal they were to go and prepare. Jesus in fact sent them and
told them to prepare it as it was His desire to eat that Passover
with them before He suffered and died.

     When the truth is known as we have brought out in these
studies so far. This was a regular true Passover observance, at
the beginning of the 14th, as it should have been, with
everything the Passover was to have for a supper meal -
unleavened bread, bitter herbs, and the roasted lamb.

     Seventh question:

     When did Jesus arrive to observe this Passover meal?  The
synoptic Gospels bring out that it was the day when the Passover
lambs must be killed. It was from this and many other verses the
14th of Nisan. Just about no one disputes the fact that Jesus had
this last Passover meal where He instituted the New Covenant
symbols of His memorial death service, on the night of the 14th,
at the beginning of the 14th. 
     Jesus sent two of His disciples to prepare this Passover,
which they did. He did not go with them to help them prepare it,
nor did all the other disciples. 
     They came to Him probably as the sun was setting, going down
over the horizon. Somewhat in urgency because he had said nothing
so far to them as to where they would observe the Passover. He
tells them how to find the place which was already ready, and
there to prepare the Passover. Some have estimated that to kill
and clean, and roast a lamb ready for eating for 12 or so men,
would probably take from three and a half to five hours(see the
book "The Christian Passover" by F.Coulter). 
     Luke 22:14 says: "And when the HOUR was come, He sat down
and the twelve apostles with Him."

     Sunset in Palestine about the Passover time of the year
could have been around 6 p.m. or  7 p.m. or later depending on
whether a 13th month had been added to the calendar(which it must
be added from time to time) that year.  So Jesus may not have sat
down with the twelve until 10 p.m. or 11 p.m. to start eating
this Passover meal.
     The main point is that it did take a number of hours to
prepare the Passover meal ready to be eaten. Jesus came later
with the other disciples to the upper room, after the Passover
had been prepared and the night was well on its way.

     It was during or after this Passover meal that Jesus
introduced the New Covenant ordinances of the foot washing, bread
and wine. It was at NIGHT all this took place, just as Paul said
it was in 1 Cor.11, the same night in which He was betrayed.

     There are still some more verses that puzzle some about this
last Passover both in the synoptic Gospels and the Gospel of
John.
     Those we shall begin to look at in our next study.

          ......................................................


PASSOVER
                     UNDERSTANDINGS
                      

              "AND ON THE DAY OF UNLEAVENED
                          BREAD"

 

              Written March 1997 by
                         Keith Hunt
     It has been a puzzle to many who read the KJV to find
sentences in the Gospels that say: "Now on the first day of the
feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying
unto Him, Where will you that we prepare for you to eat the
passover"(Mat.26:17).

     Something similar is said in Mark 14:12, yet there it seems
to say they killed the passover on the first day of unleavened
bread. And Luke says the same as Mark(Luke 22:7).

     Reading the plain easy to understand scriptures in the books
of Moses as we have done in our previous studies, we clearly find
as in Lev.23 and Num.28 that the Passover was the 14th day and
the first day of the Unleavened Bread feast was the 15th. This
15th day was also a holy convocation day - a Sabbath assembly
day, as was the last or 7th day of this Unleavened Bread feast.

     Days began at even in Israel as seen from WHEN to observe
the feast of Atonement in Lev.23.
     So how could it be possible that the disciples came to Jesus
on the first day of the feast of Unleavened Bread as Matthew
seems to say, which would then be the 15th day of the first
month, which would also be a Sabbath, and ask Jesus where they
could prepare the Passover which obviously they had not yet
killed and eaten.
     Where they killing the Passover on the 15th, a Sabbath day?
Did Jesus die on the 15th, a Sabbath day? Of course not! The
Gospel of John tells us they were in a hurry to take Jesus down
from the cross and place Him in the garden tomb BECAUSE the
Sabbath drew on - the Sabbath of the feast - the 15th. The law of
Moses stated that no one should remain dead on a tree over any
night of any day(Deut.21:23 with John 19:31).
     The Passover lambs were never to be killed on a Sabbath day.
There is NO HISTORY of the Jews that teaches or recorded that the
Jews ever killed the lambs of the Passover on ANY Sabbath day(at
least the Jews that John has in mind in his gospel, who were
using the 14th as a preparation day for the coming 15th Sabbath).
There was much work in slaying and roasting the lambs, never did
God allow the Passover sacrifice to be done on a Sabbath.
Certainly the Pharisee sect that killed the lambs at the Temple
never taught or practiced doing it on any Sabbath. They did it in
the afternoon of the 14th, leading up to the Sabbath of the 15th,
which was the first day of the feast of Unleavened Bread proper,
from the evening at the end of the 14th to the evening at the end
of the 21st day(Exodus 12:18).
     The scribes and Pharisees and their followers who practiced
and taught this way to observe the sacrifice of the Passover,
leading into the 15th Sabbath, were doing JUST THAT as John
records for us  in the last chapters of his Gospel. 
     All is very clear from all four Gospel writers that Jesus
died on the afternoon of the 14th, after He had observed the
Passover at the beginning of the 14th(the night before), at
dusk(when it was killed) and on into that night(as we have seen
in earlier studies). As the Passover at the end of the 14th(for
those who followed the Pharisee teaching and practice) which led
up to the 15th Sabbath day, they wanted Jesus down from the tree
and in the tomb. This is very clear from the Gospel of John.

     So how on earth could the first day of the Unleavened Bread 
feast have arrived and Jesus had not yet observed the Passover,
yet observe it on the 14th, die on the 14th, when it seems to
say, it was already the 15th, the first day of the feast of UB,
and Jesus had yet to observe the Passover?
     It does seem rather confusing to say the least. It is such
seemingly contradictions of the Bible that make many into
"sceptics" and even agnostics of the Bible. Because of such
things many stumble and fall backward, and reject the Bible as
inspired, and often they reject the truth that there is a God who
does not contradict Himself in His word.


               A FEW KEYS TO UNDERSTAND THE KJV


     Many KJV Bibles will use italics for many words. Maybe you
have wondered why, maybe you already know why. In case someone
reading this does not know why italic words are found in English
translations of the Bible, I will state the reason here. All
italic words are to tell you that such words ARE NOT in the
original Greek! They were added by the translators to try and
make the reading easier to comprehend. Sometimes, maybe most of
the time, such is the case, BUT sometimes it actually not only
does not help, it makes things worse and ends up causing what
seems to be contradictions with other scriptures.
     Now to add to that, sometimes words that are not in italics
and so making it appear that they are IN the original Greek, ARE
NOT THERE EITHER! 
     So the original Greek becomes very important to have and see
when we are dealing with some of the verses that seem to
contradict one another.

     Let's go to the Greek. Here is how the Greek reads as
translated into English from the Textus Receptus in the
Greek/English Interlinear by George Ricker Berry Ph.D.

     Luke 22:7,8.

     "And came the day of unleavened in which was needful to be
killed the passover. And He sent Peter and John saying, Having
gone prepare for us the passover, that we may eat."

     Matt.26:17.

     "Now on the first of unleavened came the disciples to Jesus,
saying to Him, Where will you we should prepare for you to eat
the passover."

     Mark 14:12.

     "And on the first day of unleavened, when the passover they
killed, say to Him His disciples, Where desirest you going we
should prepare that you mayest eat the passover."

     It is very clear that Jesus and His disciples HAD NOT YET
prepared and eaten the Passover meal. It is just as clear that
they came to Him concerning WHERE to prepare the Passover ON THE
DAY THEY KILLED THE PASSOVER. We know from the truth of Exodus 12
this was in the evening, at sun-set, between the two evenings, at
DUSK, when the sun went down over the horizon TO START THE DAY OF
THE 14TH, the day they killed the Passover lambs!
     As we can plainly see from the Gospels this was the 14th day
of Nisan, the first month, NOT the 15th or ANY other day but the
14th. Remember the 15th was the Sabbath that was coming on in the
Gospel of John, the first day of the FEAST of UB, when they
hurriedly wanted Jesus' body down off the cross and into the
garden tomb.
     
     I want you to NOTICE the word "bread" is not in the Greek! 
Of course by implication bread is meant, for "unleavened" was to
do with BREAD not gape juice or fried green tomatoes.
     MORE IMPORTANT THAN THAT is to notice the fact that the word
"feast" is NOT USED!!

     None of the accounts in Matthew, Mark, and Luke, use the
word "feast" with the word "unleavened."  The Greek language did
have a word for "feast."  John used it in a number of times in
his Gospel(i.e. chapter 13:1; 7:2). They did not use it in the
verses above to be specific. Luke used the word feast in chapter
22:1. He and the others did not use it when they were referring
to THE DAY they killed the Passover lambs, and on which day the
disciples came to Jesus to ask Him where they should prepare the
Passover meal for them to eat.
     They had VERY GOOD REASON why they DID NOT use it. They did
not want you to believe this was the 15th day of the month, the
first Sabbath day, the holy convocation day, of the seven day
FEAST of Unleavened Bread.
     Oh, it was indeed THE FIRST OF UNLEAVENED(bread) in an
official, God commanded way, that unleavened bread was to be used
and eaten. I shall show you how this was so shortly, if you have
not yet called to mind the instructions of Exodus 12. And
I will show you from Jewish CUSTOM and TRADITIONS that this 14th
day was a day, the first official day in their religious
traditions, to be unleavened.

     First, I want to look at the term "the unleavened" as it is
in the Greek. It is "toon azumoon."  And it is the plural of ta
azuma. The plural form toon azumoon, "the unleavened" reflects
the point it is or can be MORE than the 7 day feast of UB. The
plural form is unlimited unless it is limited by the specific use
of a number along with it. Here in the verses above there is no
such limiting number used with this plural form.

     Let's once more re-examine in basic form, and the outline of
the use of unleavened bread, that  God gave to Israel through
Moses in the law of Moses.

     From our previous studies we have seen:

     1. By the first day of the FEAST of UB, all leavened bread
was to have been put out of the houses(Ex.12:15,19). Verse 15 is
correctly "shall have put out leaven" as it is in the past tense
in the Hebrew. So past action competed by the start or beginning
of the 15th day. But past action a few seconds UP TO the
beginning of the 15th is still past action to the start of the
15th.
     2. No leaven was to be found in their homes during the seven
day feast of UB(Ex.12:19).
     3. They were to eat unleavened bread for seven days starting
with the or on the 15th day and continuing for seven full
days(Lev.23:6-8; Deut.16:3).
     4. The first(15th day) and the seventh(21st day) of this
first month of Nisan/Abid, was to be holy convocation days, no
servile work performed, they were Sabbath
days(Ex.12;16,Lev.23:6-8; Deut.16:8; Num.28:17-25).
     5. No leaven was to be within their boarders, the entire
country was to be without leavened bread(Ex.13:7), although it
could possibly be argued that "quarters" here means houses or
dwelling places only.
     6. The Passover meal was to be eaten with UNleavened bread.
No leavened bread was to be eaten with the Passover
meal(Ex.12:8).

     This last point IS VERY IMPORTANT!  Remember it!  Mark it in
your Bible! 

     It was the law of the Lord, it was a command of God, it was
a precept of the Eternal, that ONLY UNleavened bread was to be
eaten with the Passover meal!  This 14th day was then the FIRST
OFFICIAL God commanded day within the context of His FEASTS, that
unleavened bread was to be used and eaten. The 14th day of Nisan
is a FEAST day all to itself, different from and apart from the
FEAST of the 7 days of Unleavened Bread which began on the 15th
day of the first month, and continued until the end of the 21st
day.
     The 14th day is NOWHERE in the law of Moses commanded to be
observed as a COMPLETE, 24 HOUR, DAY OF UNLEAVENED BREAD ONLY
EATING, WHERE LEAVENED BREAD WAS TO HAVE BEEN PUT OUT OF THE
HOMES BY THE BEGINNING OF THIS 14TH DAY!!

     NOTE THAT FACT, NEVER FORGET IT!  Because some have
forgotten this fact of truth, they believe the 14th day must also
be a day where leavened bread must be put out of their homes, and
only unleavened bread eaten. They believe by the time the 14th
day is to START, at the end of the 13th day, in the evening, at
sunset, dusk, of the 14th, all leavened bread is to be out of
their houses. THIS IS NOT WHAT THE LAW OF MOSES SAYS!

     It was UP TO and by the time of the beginning of the 15th
day, that all leaven was to be out of the homes. With the START
of this 15th day no leavened bread was to be eaten for seven full
days, but ONLY Unleavened bread was to be partaken of with their
meals. This is VERY CLEAR from all the scriptures on the subject
within the books of Moses.

     UNLEAVENED bread was to be eaten with the Passover meal on
the 14th, at the beginning of the 14th, in the night of the 14th.
So it was a day of UNleavened (bread) in that sense ONLY! It was
the FIRST official God appointed day of the new year, in which
unleavened bread was, as a command, to be eaten. It was a SPECIAL
day, it was the PASSOVER DAY. It was the first of God's SEVEN
festivals. So it is not surprising that the Gospel writers said
"Now THE first of unleavened, when they killed the Passover...."
Putting some emphasis on THE DAY.  That 14th day was indeed
special - it was the Passover day, the day of the first commanded
eating of unleavened bread. But it was never a command of the
Lord that the entire day was to be unleavened in both eating and
in their homes.

     Some just think it odd and strange that after observing the
memorial of our Lord's death with unleavened bread, we should or
could go back to eating leavened bread again until the 15th
arrives so many hours later.
     Yet it should not be that strange when you consider the 14th
day was NEVER by God instituted as a holy convocation day, a "no
servile" work day, or called a Sabbath day. It could just as
easily be asked that after having a serious memorial service at
the beginning of the 14th, in the night of the 14th, why should
we be able to work at our servile jobs the next day, for the 14th
is not a Sabbath.
     The answer to that is found in the typology of the day and
the prophecies concerning the suffering Messiah. What Jesus was
to be put through, His trials, His mocking, His buffeting, His
scourging, His walking to the hill of crucifixion half dead
already, and hanging on the cross where He was finally thrust
through with a spear and killed, WAS NOT SABBATH ACTIVITY!!

     He after observing the Passover with His disciples, eating
unleavened bread(picturing righteousness - 1 Cor. 5), WENT OUT
INTO THE SINFUL WORLD AGAIN TO FACE SIN AND TO LOOK IT IN THE
FACE AND OVERCOME IT. THEN HE ENTERED THE REST OF THE GREAT FEAST
THAT PICTURES THE PUTTING AWAY OF SIN TO DO HOLY PERFECT
RIGHTEOUSNESS - THE FEAST OF PERFECTION, THE FEAST OF UNLEAVENED
BREAD!  JESUS RESTED IN HOLINESS FOR THE FIRST THREE DAYS OF THAT
FEAST AND WAS RAISED IN PERFECTION TO EVER LIVE IN THAT
PERFECTION, AND NEVER AGAIN EVEN TO BE TEMPTED TO SIN(Heb.4:15).


      THE 14TH WAS THE FIRST OFFICIAL DAY OF UNLEAVENED
         BREAD FOR THE PHARISEES AND THEIR FOLLOWERS


     There is a dual meaning as to why Matthew, Mark, and Luke
used the phrase "And on the first of unleavened."  It was not
only the first official day as given by the Lord in which
unleavened bread was commanded to be eaten(with the Passover
meal) as we have seen, but the popular scribe and Pharisee
religion that most of the religious Jews followed, also had a
TRADITION, and let me give emphasis to the word TRADITION,
THAT LEAVEN BREAD WAS TO BE PUT AWAY BY AND DURING THE 14TH DAY
OF NISAN.

     From the NEW UNGER'S BIBLE DICTIONARY, page 411, we read:
 
     "......The 13th of Nisan. On the evening of the 13th
Nisan........every head of a family searched for and collected by
the light of a candle all the leaven. before beginning the
search, he pronounced the following benediction: ' Blessed art
thou, O Lord our God, King of the universe, who has sanctified us
with thy commandments, and has enjoined us to remove the leaven.' 
After the search he said, ' Whatever leaven remains in my
possession which I cannot see, behold, it is null, and accounted
as the dust of the earth.'
     "......The 14th Nisan........Handicraftsmen, with the
exception of tailors, barbers, and laundresses, were obliged to
cease from work, either from the morning or from noon, according
to the custom of the different places in Palestine. No leaven was
allowed to be eaten after noon, when all that had been found
either on this day or the preceding one was to be burned........"

     Let me put this all in simple language for you. 

     The people who followed the scribes and Pharisees in their
traditions of religion, would start to clear the house of
leavened bread, crumbs etc. on the 13th of Nisan IF NOT BEFORE
THAT!  For the reason that by the time the 14th day had come at
evening time, when the 14th began, the head of the household
would make one final search and look for leaven using the
benedictions mentioned above for the start of the search and
for the end thereof. It was done on the night of the 14th by
candle-light. The next day, the daylight part of the 14th, by
noon at the latest, NO MORE LEAVEN WAS TO BE EATEN, and all
leaven had been burned. 

     This 14th day of Nisan under the religion of the Pharisees
was for all intents and purposes, a DAY OF NO LEAVEN. They had
even made it a semi-Sabbath day as only  certain trades were to
work on that day, everyone else stopping work either from morning
or the latest from noon, depending as we read, what the CUSTOM
was in their part of Palestine.

     You see now a little more of those TRADITIONS of men that
made void the commandments of God, Jesus so often spoke against
concerning the religion of the scribes and Pharisees. You see
how much they had added to and changed the laws concerning the
Passover day as given in the books of Moses.

     They had through the process of time moved the sacrifice of
the Passover from the beginning of the 14th, to the near end of
the 14th. They had moved the killing of the Passover lambs from
the heads of groups of people gathered here and there in
Jerusalem(Jesus sent Peter and John to prepare the Passover), to
having the Priesthood kill the lambs, and that not in houses but
in the Temple. They even went as far as having all the leaven out
of their homes by the beginning of the 14th, as they had one more
final search by candle-light for leaven. None were to eat leaven
after at least noon of the 14th. Then after all that it did not
stop there, they had made the 14th into a semi-Sabbath day.

     None of the above customs and traditions were part of the
laws of the Passover day according to the books of Moses. The law
of the Passover meal was very clear in Exodus 12. The lamb was to
be killed at DUSK, between the two evenings, at the start of the
14th, and only UNleavened bread was to be eaten with THAT meal.
The 14th day was NOT a Sabbath, and it was NOT a complete full
day of no leaven in the house, or to be eaten. No leaven was to
be eaten with the Passover meal, and that was it, period!
All leaven was to be out by the time the 15th day started, and
from that time through to the end of the 21st day, only
UNleavened bread was to be eaten. A full and complete perfect
seven days. This was the command of the Lord, no more and no
less!

     Now we see no contradiction in the word of the Lord. All
harmonizes perfectly. The scripture cannot be broken as Jesus
told us. 
     
     The 14th day as it arrived, as the sun set over the horizon,
as that day arrived when they killed the Passover, as they were
about to start to kill the Passover (those who knew the truth and
did not follow the Pharisees) at the beginning of the 14th, in
their different groups, in different homes within and around the
extended city limits of Jerusalem. As it was the first official
God ordered, commanded day of the year to eat UNleavened bread on
during the Passover meal(and even unleavened as far as the
Pharisee religious traditions went), Matthew, Mark and Luke
correctly said: "Now on the first of unleavened, the disciples
came to Jesus and said, Where shall be go to prepare the Passover
for you to eat."  

     Next time we shall look at a few passages in the Gospel of
John that puzzle and confuse many.

           ..........................................


The 14th - A day of Unleaven?

Why did Matthew, Mark, Luke, say it was unleaven?

                                by

                         Keith Hunt




     As most scholars know, a careful studying of the harmony of
the Gospels, will reveal that Jesus kept the Passover with His
disciples on the "evening" of the 14th of Abib or Nisan (in the
Jewish calendar, corresponding to our March/April). On that
evening, which was the beginning of the 14th, Jesus introduced
the NT emblems of the bread and wine and foot-washing. That night
He was betrayed by Judas in the garden of Gethsemane, and was
subsequently crucified on Golgotha during the daylight hours of
the 14th. The Pharisees and their followers would then observe
their Passover that evening of the 15th, which was the start of
the feast of Unleavened Bread, according to the books of Moses,
and which I have shown and proved in another study.

     All this is pretty plain to see for most astute Gospel
studiers. Why then do we have THREE Gospel writers, writing as
if, well for most people it would be as if, Jesus was going to
observe the Passover on the first evening of the feast of
Unleavened Bread?

     Let's note how the Gospel writers actually wrote it in the
Greek. I will be quoting the literal translation from the Greek
by  J. P. Green from his Greek/English Interlinear.


MATTHEW 26: 17 "And on the first unleavened came the disciples to
Jesus, saying to Him; Where will you we may prepare for you to
eat the Passover?......"

MARK  14: 12  "And on the first day of the unleavened, when the
Passover they killed, say to Him the disciples of Him; Where do
you wish going we may prepare that you eat the Passover?......"

LUKE 22: 7  "And came the day of the unleavened, on which must be
killed the Passover....."

     Well, it kinda sounds like it could be the first day of the
Feast of Unleavened Bread, but if so that would put it on the
evening or start of the 15th day of Nisan, and most scholars
would immediately raise the red flag on that idea.
     But we need to notice that the word "feast" or "festival"
does not appear in any of the above quotes from the three Gospel
writers. And this is VERY IMPORTANT, for it sets up the immediate
question we need to ask, "If it was NOT the feast of Unleavened
Bread, then what did they mean by it being on the first day of
unleavened?"

     We need to now search the history books to see if we can
find the answer. And yes, indeed we can find the answer. ALFRED
EDERSHEIM, D.D., Ph.D. the great Jewish/Christian writer gives it
to us as he writes about what the Jews did on this 14th day of
Nisan. 
     I quote from Edersheim's book "THE TEMPLE - its Ministry and
Services" (Eerdmans, Grand Rapids, Michigan, 1982), pages 219,
220. All CAPITAL letter words are mine for emphasis.

     "The SPECIAL preparations for the Passover commenced on the
EVENING of the 13th of Nisan, with which, according to Jewish
reckoning, the 14th BEGAN, the day being always computed from
evening to evening. THEN the head of the house was to SEARCH
with a lighted candle all places where LEAVEN was usually kept,
and to put what of it he found in the house in a safe place,
whence no portion could be carried away by any accident. Before
doing this, he prayed: 'Blessed art Thou, Jehovah, our God, King
of the Universe, who has sanctified us by Thy commandments, and
commanded us to remove the leaven.' And after it he said, 'ALL
the LEAVEN that is in my possession, that which I have seen and
that which I have not seen, be it null, be it accounted as the
dust of the earth.' 
     The search itself was to be accomplished in perfect silence
and with a lighted candle......Jewish tradition sees a reference
to this search with candles in Zeph.1: 12; 'And it shall come to
pass at this time that I will search Jerusalem with candles.' 
     If the leaven HAD NOT been removed on the evening of the
13th (beginning of the 14th in Jewish reckoning -Keith Hunt), it
might STILL BE DONE on the AFTERNOON OF THE 14TH OF NISAN......

     Early on the FORENOON of the 14th of Nisan the feast of the
Passover may be said to have begun. In Galilee, no work was done
all day; in Judea it was continued till mid-day.....Even EARLIER
than MID-DAY of the 14th it was NO LONGER LAWFUL to eat LEAVEN.
The strictest opinion fixes ten o'clock, as the LATEST hour when
leaven MIGHT BE EATEN, the more lax, eleven. From that hour to
twelve o'clock it was required to ABSTAIN from LEAVEN, while at
twelve it was to be solemnly DESTROYED, either by burning,
immersing it in water, or scattering it to the winds. 
     
     To secure STRICT OBEDIENCE and uniformity, the EXACT TIME
for ABSTAINING from and for DESTROYING the LEAVEN was thus made
known: 'They laid two desecrated cakes of a thank-offering on a
bench in the porch (of the Temple). So long as they lay there,
all the people might eat (leavened); when one of them was
removed, they abstained from eating, but they did not burn (the
leaven); when BOTH were REMOVED, all the people burnt (the
leaven)' (Pes. i. 5)."   End of quote.

     Ah yes, now we see the importance of this day, the 14th day,
in the lives of those who followed the teachings and traditions
of the scribes, Pharisees, and priests. The 14th day was, with
the "leaven" search in the homes on the evening of the 14th, the
beginning of the 14th, a very important day to the Pharisee Jews,
of removing "leaven" from out of their homes and from out of
their lives, EVEN BEFORE the hour of the 15th day came, which was
the day that started the FEAST OF UNLEAVENED BREAD. By 10 a.m. or
at the latest 11 a.m. of the morning of the 14th day, leaven was
no longer allowed to be eaten, if of course you followed the
Pharisees and their traditions and teachings. 

     We see now why Matthew, Mark, and Luke, all report this
BEGINNING  of the 14th day, the evening of the 14th day, when
Jesus and the twelve were about to observe the Passover, as "the
first day of the unleavened" or "the day of the unleavened" or
"on the first unleavened" and NOT anytime as a day of THE FEAST
of Unleavened Bread. It was indeed to the Pharisee Jews, "A" day
of "unleavened" - "A" day when leaven was put out, and not eaten,
either on the evening of the day, or by 10 or 11 a.m. the next
morning. In Jewish Pharisee tradition the 14th day of Nisan had
become known as "unleavened." But of course for those who knew
the truth of God's word, it was the Passover day, and the
beginning of that day, the evening of that day, was the time to
celebrate the Passover meal, just as Jesus with His disciples
were recorded by the Gospel writers as doing just that...killing
and eating the Passover.

                ...........................

January 2003 


PASSOVER
                  UNDERSTANDINGS
                 

              SOME PROBLEMS WITH JOHN?


              Written March 1997 by
                        Keith Hunt

 




     Because John in his Gospel used the word "supper" in
connection with the meal that Jesus had with His disciples on the
night of the 14th of Nisan, some have taken this to mean that
Jesus did not observe the Passover proper but was instituting
something completely new. 
     This question needs to be answered. Is there a contradiction
between the writers of the synoptic Gospels and that by John?
     To answer this I will quote from the book by Dr.Samuele
Bacciocchi - GOD'S FESTIVALS, pages 60,61.

     "The Last Supper in the Gospel of John. In the Gospel of
John only few details of the Last Supper are given, because, as
Geldenhuys explain, 'He assumes that his readers are quite aware
of the fact that this meal was the paschal repast which the Lord
celebrated with His disciples on the evening of His
crucifixion......For this season he merely refers to it by the
single word deipnon (supper) without stating expressly what
precise meal it was. He knew that the first three Gospels and
also the Epistles of Paul gave a full account of the celebration
of the paschal repast and the institution of the Holy Communion.
Consequently he does not repeat the same facts, but mentions a
few supplementary occurrences that took place during the meal, as
they made a great impression on him and had not been described in
the other Gospels.'
     Though John does not explicitly designate the Last Supper as
a Passover meal for the reasons just mentioned, there are
indications that he also regarded the meal shared by Christ with
His disciples as a paschal meal. 
     The meal takes place within Jerusalem even though the city
was thronged with pilgrims (John 12:12, 18, 20; 13:2; 18:1; cf.
Mark 14:17). During His last stay in Jerusalem, Jesus regularly
left the holy city in the evening and went to Bethany (Mark
11:11,19; Luke 19:29; 21:37), but at the time of the Last Supper,
He remained in the overcrowded city. Why? Because, as mentioned
earlier, it was a rule that the paschal lamb had to be eaten
within the gates of Jerusalem(For a documentation and discussion,
see Joachim Jeremias, The Eucharistic Words of Jesus - Oxford,
England, 1995, pp. 15- 16).
     The supper is held in the evening and lasts into the night
(John 13:30; cf. Mark 14:17). The ordinary supper was not held at
night, but in the late afternoon(See Josephus, Jewish Wars 2, 8,
5). The Last Supper began in the evening and lasted into the
night because, as Joachim Jeremias explains, ' the Passover had
to be eaten at night ever since its institution ' (Joachim
Jeremias note 10, p.18). 
     The meal was religious in character, and the participants
reclined at the table (John 13:12, 23, 25, 28; cf. Mark 14:18).
At an ordinary meal, diners sat down to eat, as indicated by
rabbinical sources (Ibid., p.20). At the Last Supper, however,
Jesus and His disciples did not sit; they reclined, because 'at
Passover, as a symbol of liberty, it was the ritual duty of the
people present to recline at the table even-as is expressly
stated-for 'the poorest man in Israel' (Ibid., p.26).
     Finally, after the meal Jesus did not return to Bethany as
He had done the preceding nights. He walked to the Garden of
Gethsemane (John 18:1-2). The reason is that custom dictates that
' the night of Passover had to be spent in Jerusalem
(contemporary exegesis derived this command from Deut. 16:17). In
order to make possible the observance  of this command, the city
district had been enlarged to include Bethphage. Bethany,
however, lay outside the enlarged city district ' (Ibid., p.31). 
     The above indications suggest that John, like the synoptic
writers, regarded the Last Supper that Jesus shared with His
disciples as a Passover meal."

     End of quote from the book God's Festivals.

     I think all of the above arguments and deductions do show
John was in no way contradicting anything that Matthew, Mark and
Luke wrote about the last Passover observance Jesus had with His
disciples, on the night of the 14th day of Nisan. If as most
scholars believe, John was the last apostle to write his Gospel,
then it is only logical he would write things that no other
Gospel recorded, and that he would choose to write with a
different style.
     So John did not use the word "Passover" with the meal Jesus
shared with His disciples on that night of the 14th, so what I
say. Three other Gospel writers sure did. And just because John
did not does not make the other writers wrong!  John does not
in any way contradict the fact that Jesus did observe the
Passover as recorded by the others. He says nothing about this
supper being NEW, or a "farewell meal" or just a "fellowship
gathering to introduce the New Covenant memorial service of
Jesus' death." Really no big deal, it was the Passover supper
meal they were observing!
     John goes right into it mentioning things the other writers
did not. So the whole is complete when all the pieces are put
together. It is obvious from some of the things he states that he
is indeed talking about the same Passover supper meal that the
other Gospels talk about. And they made it very clear that it was
the paschal meal Jesus was observing.
     There could be another reason as to why John may have
deliberately not used the
 ord "passover" but the word "supper" instead.  John does use the
word Passover in his last chapters of his Gospel. He uses it in
chapters 13:1; 18:28, 39; 19:14.
     As you look at these verses and the context(also the context
of the other Gospels) it is again clear that all that transpired
to Jesus during the night and early morning, and His being put on
the cross to die, was all done ON THE 14TH, leading up to the
late afternoon of the 14th, when the Passover lambs were killed
by the Pharisees teaching in the Temple, and when the majority of
the religious Jews observed THEIR Passover. They were still to
"eat the passover"(chap.18:28). It was, this 14th day, the
"preparation day" of the Jews who observed the Passover at the
END of the 14th(chap.19:14). It was not only the preparation day
for this passover of those Jews who followed the Temple custom,
but it was also as John records, the day before "the Sabbath
day"(chap.19:31) - the 15th day, the first annual Sabbath of the
Feast of Unleavened Bread.
     Historically the popular religion of the Jewish Temple had
Passover at the end of the 14th, going on into the 15th. John may
have wanted his readers to understand that when he used the word
"passover" in his last chapters, he was ONLY referring to the
popular Jewish Passover of the Temple followers. If he had also
used the word "passover" in connection with the supper meal Jesus
had with His disciples, it may have caused un-necessary confusion
in the minds of his readers. At least by using it with the
popular Temple tradition(yet to eat the passover - chap.18:28 -
at the end of the 14th) he would keep his readers on the correct
chronological path.
     It would seem it was important for John to not only record
certain things done and said during Jesus' supper meal with His
disciples, that no other writer had recorded, but it also seems
that John thought it important to make sure his readers
understood clearly WHEN all these events took place. They
transpired ON the 14th day, the day used by the Jews of the
Temple Passover observance to prepare for the killing and eating
of the passover lambs, and to prepare for the coming Sabbath of
the 15th, the first day of the feast of Unleavened Bread.

     What I say next is more than just interesting. You should
note it carefully, for it bears out I believe the truth of what I
have stated above.

     The word "passover" is used by Matthew, Mark and Luke, in
connection with Jesus' night of the 14th day meal with his
disciples. BUT AFTER THAT PASSOVER MEAL on that night, those
writers NEVER AGAIN USE the word "passover" - it just does not
appear from that night forward to the end of their Gospels. With
all they say about the arrest, trial, beatings, crucifixion,
death, burial, and resurrection of Christ, THEY NEVER AGAIN
USE THE WORD "PASSOVER." 
     You can verify this fact in a few minutes with Strong's
Concordance of the Bible, please do not just take my word for it,
see it for yourself, and then you will know.
     With John it would seem he did in the main just the
opposite. After telling us about a number of things that went on
during that "supper" meal Jesus had with His disciples, he then
uses the word "passover" - three times in fact, and once "the
sabbath day" to come after that 14th day. 
     John is most definitely using a context within a Jewish
Traditional Temple Observance Passover, the other three Gospel
writers were most definitely NOT DOING SO!  They were using a
context of the true original, correct time, to observe THE
PASSOVER, at the beginning of the 14th day of the first month, as
the disciples asked Jesus "where shall we prepare the Passover
for you to eat."

                 JOHN'S PHRASE "THE PASSOVER"?

     There is a key to Bible reading and understanding that most
do not know about, have never been taught, or have never grasped
it as they read through the word of the Lord. And that little
key(one of a number of little keys to Bible reading) is that some
writers wrote phrases and sentences that were purely HISTORICAL
CUSTOM/TRADITION  comments ONLY, never intended for anyone to
believe that sacred God breathed DOCTRINE was being established.
     Examples will show you exactly what I mean;

     1. Sabbath days journey(Acts 1:12).

     Luke who wrote the book of Acts, just from nowhere it would
seem throws at us these words found in verse twelve: "....which
is from Jerusalem a sabbath day's journey." 
Now where did he ever get that from?  There is nothing in the Law
of Moses about "a sabbath day's journey."  There is nothing
anywhere in the Bible concerning "a sabbath day's journey."  The
center reference column in my KJV and my NKJV gives no cross
scripture for that phrase.
     The truth is Luke was merely throwing in an HISTORICAL
CUSTOM of PRACTICE from his religious TRADITIONS of the Jewish
world. Many of his readers knew what he was talking about as they
were familiar with such Jewish rules and practices concerning
things done or not done on the Sabbath. The main part of
religious Judaism had, not from any law of God, not from any
specific command of the Lord regarding how far to travel
on the Sabbath,  from their own mind established the rule of "how
far they could travel on the Sabbath."
     Luke gives this fact of the day(common knowledge and common
practice for those who put themselves under such rules) to tell
his readers the distance from Olivet to Jerusalem. HE DID NOT
GIVE IT TO ESTABLISH CHRISTIAN DOCTRINE AS IF IT WAS A LAW OF
GOD!!
     He does not state it IS a law of the Lord. He does not say
it WAS a law of the Lord. He just uses a common custom of
practice, to inform a "distance" in the mind of readers, NOT TO
ESTABLISH A NEW LAW FOR CHRISTIANS TO FOLLOW.  Jesus had taught
man was to live by every word of GOD, if there was no law from
God regarding a distance one could travel on the Sabbath, then
there was no law to break.
     This is an example that could be compared to this. I am
going to hold an Evangelistic series of meetings on the Canadian
TV religious channel. I will do it on December the 25th. Some
reporter writing for the Toronto Star(which goes all over
Canada) is to write a story about my series. At some point,
knowing that most people reading  will understand certain terms
because of religious custom, he says, "And Pastor Keith Hunt will
bring these Evangelistic messages to you on Christmas Day."  By
so describing, by using such words,  is that meaning I am going
to preach about Christmas? Does it mean I believe in observing
Christmas Day?  NO!  The reporter stated no such doctrine that I
will do either!  But he did, by using an HISTORICAL CUSTOM
TIME(Christmas Day) most all would know is December 25th, tell
people WHEN my messages could be heard. And that's all he meant
by it, no more and no less.

     2. Feast of Dedication(John 10:22,23).

     John puts us at Jerusalem, in the winter, at the time of the
feast of dedication. Now you see if you can find any such feast
commanded by the Lord to be observed in the books of Moses. I'll
give you as much time as you like, but I'll also tell you that
you will never find such a feast in the laws of the Lord. So as
Paul said: "where there is no law there is no transgression." 
God does not command you to observe such a feast if you do not
want to observe it, it is just that simple. This feast had
HISTORICAL meaning for the Jews. It was then an HISTORICAL CUSTOM
PRACTICE for many Jews. Some of the Bible Commentaries will tell
you all about it, how it originated etc.
     Jesus was in Jerusalem and in the Temple. Now does John say
Christians are to observe this feast? Does he state this feast is
now New Covenant DOCTRINE for the church of God? Does he even
state that Jesus was observing it?  NO!  He states NONE of these
things. Jesus may have taken advantage of the situation and the
custom of people, to preach to them.  As Paul once said: "To a
Jew I become a Jew, to a Greek, a Greek, to a Roman, I become a
Roman, that I may win some to Christ."
     I could take advantage of preaching the truths of God on
Christmas Day because many more could be willing to listen to
religion on that day, as it is an historical custom to do so.
     John, by using this HISTORICAL CUSTOM PRACTICE of his day
was at best only telling his readers WHEN all that transpired
between Jesus and the Jews, he is going to relate to them, TOOK
PLACE!  John was certainly not trying to establish a new church
DOCTRINE for Christians.  If anyone teaches that he was they are
certainly at best, reading into those words things that are not
there, and at worst, they are perverting and twisting those words
to say something they just do not say.

     3. James, Peter, and Unleavened Bread(Acts 12:1-5).

     Should anyone use these verses to try to prove to someone
that they should observe the feast of Unleavened Bread?  Was this
written here to prove to Christians that they should under the
New Covenant, continue to observe the Unleavened Bread feast that
is found in the books of Moses?  
     Look at it, read it!  I certainly would never give this as a
proof text that the church of God should observe the days of
Unleavened Bread. I have a few NT verses that do a FAR better job
for that purpose than these in Acts 12.
     Luke is telling his readers the TIME ELEMENT ONLY as he
relates to them the facts about James and Peter and Herod. All
this took place at an HISTORICAL CUSTOM PRACTICE that most
readers would easily acquaint with. He was not HERE trying to
prove the DOCTRINE that the NT church of God observed this feast
of the Lord. He is not here trying to DISPROVE it either. He was
not entering that debate at all. That was to be taken up
elsewhere, under other times and other purposes, and other parts
of the word of the Lord. DOCTRINE was not the issue here. The
fact of WHEN all this took place was one of the main points he
wanted to bring out, no more and no less.

     4. Amos and new month day(Amos 8:5).

     God is warning and correcting Israel. Many of them were
saying, "When will the new month be gone, that we may sell corn?"
     This is the new month day here spoken about. People were
wanting it over with so they could SELL CORN!  Now just a minute,
we need to ask: Where is the law of the Lord that prohibited the
selling of corn on the new month day? In fact where is the law
of God that prohibited selling ANYTHING on the new month day? 
Take Strong's Concordance, look up new month in every place in
the books of Moses, and see if you can find any law making the
new month day as a Sabbath, or prohibiting the selling of
grain. I guarantee it, you will not come close to finding any
such law for the new month day.
     In the time of Amos(who knows when it may have started) the
people of Israel had from HISTORICAL CUSTOM(at some point in
time) made the new month day into a kind of Sabbath day, and they
were here moaning about the fact of their practice, as well as
the true weekly Sabbath. There attitude of mind was all way off
the wall and out of line, that is true, but what we need to see
is that by Amos recording what he did, as to Israel's HISTORICAL
PRACTICE that most of his readers were familiar with, about the
new month day, DID NOT MAKE IT A LAW OF GOD, that was established
by the Lord. Amos was NOT trying to establish DOCTRINE here. He
was relating an attitude of mind, but also historical practices
of the time. Now to see if those historical doings of their's(on
the new month day and the Sabbath day) WAS IN LINE WITH THE LAW
OF GOD OR NOT, was not to be done in those verses(as that truth
Amos never even touches on), but must be done ELSEWHERE in the
law of God.
     Because people do not understand this little key to Bible
reading, I once had a group of people attend one of our Sabbath
services in Ontario, back in the 80's. They were convinced from
reading Amos 8:5 that the new month day WAS A SABBATH!  They
just could not understand what I have stated to you above. I
asked them to find in the books of Moses, the law of the Lord,
where the new month day was to be observed as a Sabbath. They
could not find it, but because of Amos 8:5 they were dogmatic
that the new month day was to be observed as a Sabbath.

     Remembering that some writers of the Bible sometimes wrote
down HISTORICAL CUSTOM PRACTICES of the time as points of fact
that were being done by people, as calendar marks, as reference
to something else(i.e.the distance from Olivet to Jerusalem)
people would acquaint with, AND NOT TO ESTABLISH DOCTRINE, will
get you out of a lot of trouble.

     I could give many more examples as above, but time and space
does not permit. I think you should from what I've given,
understand this little truth.

                     BACK TO JOHN

     Now do you see where John was coming from in the last
chapters of his Gospel. He mentions and uses the word "passover"
at least three times. The context is obviously the Passover that
was HISTORICALLY THE CUSTOM practiced by many Jews of the Temple
tradition, the end of the 14th Passover. It was called by them
the PASSOVER, it was known by them and many others in different
nations, as the Passover. That was the name it was, pure and
simple. Just as Christmas Day is Christmas Day. John is not going
to change it to some other name for his chronology. His readers
would have been lost if he had. The historical practice of many
to kill the lambs in the Temple at the end of the 14th day was
called "the Passover."  John WENT ALONG!  I may "go along" with
the phrase "Christmas Day" for chronological, or calendar
reasons, if writing about certain things to certain people, BUT
THAT BY ITSELF, WITHOUT ME ADDING OTHER COMMENTS, DOES NOT PROVE
IT IS CORRECT OR FROM THE LAW OF GOD!!
     I must use other scriptures or add other comments if I want
to prove to my readers the common historical practice of
Christmas Day observance is WRONG, should not be practiced, or is
done at the wrong time.
     John used a phrase within a chronological setting that was
an historical custom phrase, quite easily understood by the
readers of his day. He added NO MORE!  He did not enter the
DOCTRINAL debate of this phrase "the Passover" concerning the
true WHEN of its observance as given by God to Israel through
Moses.  The purpose for John's last chapters, from chapter
thirteen to the end, was not in the least to prove the
doctrinal truth of WHEN, at what time of the 14th day, should the
Passover be observed. John's purpose was to give some basic
chronological setting to the last day of Jesus' life in the
flesh, but also to give some other very important words,
teaching, example, of Jesus, that the other Gospel writers did
not give to us.

     The truth of WHEN to observe the NT Passover had already
been given in the books of Moses, and in the writings of the
other Gospels of Matthew, Mark, and Luke(as we saw in our last
study), together with that of Paul in 1 Cor.11 when he said: "the
SAME NIGHT in which He was betrayed took bread....and
said......also He took the cup.....saying......"

     Are there still more understandings we need to see about the
Passover? Yes indeed!  We have not finished yet.

               .................................


John 13: 1 (before)?

The Two events John was relating

                                                       by
                                     
                                                Keith Hunt



In some circles people want to make a large fuss over the word
BEFORE (Greek "pro") in John 13: 1.  They would like this whole
passage to be on ANOTHER day (even claiming John is speaking
about another day), rather than on the evening of the 14th day
of the first month in the Hebrew calendar, as all the other
Gospel writers had it placed, and I might add just about every
scholar in Protestantism and Roman Catholicism have placed it.
     It would seem that only a few within the 7th day keeping
"Churches of God" try to place this passage at some other time
than at the beginning of the 14th day, or within the first number
of hours of the Passover day, which is the 14th day of the first
month in the Jewish calendar.
     Such people then often put emphasis on this word "before" as
John stated "And BEFORE the feast of the Passover......"

The word translated "before" in the Greek is "pro" as used in the
New Testament (used 48 times), and certainly in 99% of the cases
is translated "before" and the context of all verses would state
it does mean what we in English mean by "before" - it means
"ahead of, in front of, on top of or above," - the word means
"first in order of" and so it does mean "before" something else,
or in front of something else.

I have no problem with this word and what it means. In John 13: 1
it means "before" and in this case, before, or in front of, the
PASSOVER.

Where the mistake comes is to then PRESUME that all that John
wrote after those first few words, are on another day, other than
the evening of the 14th of Nisan (first month in Jewish
calendar).

The mistake comes by not realizing certain ways in which the
Gospel writers wrote. First, there are no punctuation marks in
the original Greek manuscripts. Second, there are no sentencing
or paragraphing in the original Greek manuscripts, all letter and
lines ran one after the other, none stop. Third, the NT writers
often stated things without telling you what thought was moving
from what thought. They, in other words, did not tell you what
was connected to what, or when a thought ended, and they were now
into anther thought.

And this third point, was what John was doing here. He was
stating a certain point, then without telling you, he moved to
another thought and time and event.

Let's get to it as they say. The literal English translation by
Green in his English/Greek Interlinear, reads this way: 

"Before and the feast of the Passover, knowing Jesus that had
come of Him the hour that He should move from world this, to the
Father, loving the own - in the world, to end He loved them."
The KJV is pretty well right on in their rendition of the Greek
into English.

John is simply stating a NATURAL fact. BEFORE the Passover came
and was celebrated by Christ with His disciples (that is clearly
shown to have been on the BEGINNING of the 14th, the evening of
the 14th, by the other three Gospels, Matthew, Mark and Luke),
Jesus KNEW that His time was NOW COMING, was very close at hand,
was nearly upon Him, when He would be leaving this world and
returning to the Father in heaven. Of course, if you know you
are, say at your birthday time, going to take a trip to a far
away country, and leave the country you are in, then BEFORE that
journey comes, and that birthday day is just about upon you, then
you KNOW it is close at hand, and you know what you may have
known three years earlier, that you are within a very short while
going to take that journey to that far away country.

All that John is saying is that just before the Passover day was
to come, Jesus KNEW that this particular Passover was going to be
His last one on earth. It was going to be a very special Passover
day, because Jesus knew the hour was very fast approaching that
on this Passover day He was going to die on the cross, and so
would begin the events that would have Him leaving this world and
returning to His Father in heaven.

John simply wrote that BEFORE the Passover day actually arrived,
shortly before, Jesus knew that the hour or time, had finally
arrived when He would be leaving this world and returning to
heaven. And then after telling us that this is what Jesus KNEW
shortly before the Passover day of the 14th came, he went on to
tell us that Jesus had loved HIS OWN, that would still be left in
the world, and He had so loved them right up to the very end of
His human life on earth. He had loved them from start to finish,
loved them up to His physical death, that He KNEW was about to
take place, BECAUSE, the Passover was right on top of them.
And He knew BEFOREHAND that THIS Passover was very special,
because on it He would die, and the events then would soon have
Him back in heaven.

That is all that John was saying in that paragraph....no more and
no less. THEN he starts into another section and event that took
place AFTER he related his thought in verse one. The thought in
verse one was to tell you that Jesus KNEW BEFOREHAND, before the
Passover day actually arrived, that the events for THIS coming
Passover would lead to Him going from this world back to His
Father in heaven.

What John THEN, after stating what Jesus KNEW before that day
came, went on to relate was ANOTHER event, which actually DID
take place on that VERY Passover day (in the first number of
hours of that day, the evening of that day, the beginning of that
day). John's one thought (and him relating it to us) at first, is
the thought of remembering that Jesus KNEW before the event of
the Passover day, that His hour or time had now come (was just
about upon Him) for Him to leave this world and return to heaven,
and that Jesus had loved His own to the very end (which end was
the time of Jesus' end of being a human being). Then John moves
into an event and relates it to us, that took place on the actual
Passover day, in the evening of the Passover day, which flows in
line then with all the other Gospel writers, and makes for no
contradiction with any of them.

John does not TELL YOU his move of thought or move from one
thought that Jesus was thinking BEFORE the Passover, to his move
of thought which was to relate to you the foot-washing that was
done by Jesus ON the Passover day, the evening, or beginning
of that day.

Such is how some of the writers of the NT wrote. Paul in his
writings often used this kind of thought movement....a back and
forth moving, and DID NOT tell his readers that he was going to
do it. Just as he in one breath was talking as if they were all
Jews that he was addressing, then in the next breath, as if they
were all Gentiles. Many writers of the NT do not tell you in a
nice neat little way, that they were moving around, in this
fashion, they just did it. The NT was inspired to be written in
such a way at times, that it could really confuse and get people
mixed up, throw them off stride, turn them around backwards and
inside-out. Especially is this so, IF you are not willing to go
to the easy, clear, plain, Scriptures FIRST, on a given subject,
and let them give you the foundation of the truth of the matter.
Then after that foundation is nailed down from the simple clear
verses, then you can tackle the ones that seem to contradict, or
have you scratching your head over.

Let me try to illustrate all this with a modern example. I shall
use fictitious names. The Super Bowl (that of course is the
actual name of a sports event in the USA) comes once a year, on a
set date. We have a coach, I shall name him, Joe Brown. He is the
spearhead of his team, we shall call "The Flying Eagles." They
make it to the Super Bowl, which comes once a year on a set date.
Joe Brown is going to retire at this Super Bowl, and move to a
far away country.

We put it all into the context of John 13: 1.

"Now, BEFORE the Super Bowl, when Brown knew that his hour or
time was come to retire and leave that part of the world, and go
far way to another country, he had loved his team players that
would stay on in that country right to the very end."

We now move right to the Super Bowl, the day had actually come.
We are within the day itself and the game itself was just over.

"And the Super Bowl having ended .....He (Brown) walks from the
field, takes a bucket of water and a towel and washes the head
and face of each of his players, and shakes their hand."

John in chapter 13 was relating two important things and events.
One was the event that Jesus KNEW BEFORE the Passover day came
that this coming Passover day was like no other. For it was the
time to mark the events leading to His going home to His Father
in heaven.  THEN, John goes into relating the foot-washing event
that took place on the actual Passover day itself.

Two events, one in the MIND of Christ before the Passover day,
and the other an ACTION done by Christ ON the evening of the
Passover day.

All in complete HARMONY with the other three Gospel writers.

              ...........................

Written January 2003


John 13 and the Last Supper?

When did all this take place?

                                        COMPILED AND WRITTEN 
                                                                 bY
                                                                       KEITH HUNT



I will be quoting mainly from Dr. Samuele Bacchiocchi's book
called "God's Festivals - in Scripture and History - Part 1 - The
Spring Festivals."

     Quote (all capital letter words for emphasis, are mine
throughout):

     ".......John 13: 1, which functions as a PROLOGUE or title
to the story of the Last Supper in the Upper Room. As translated
by the RSV, it reads: 'Now before the feast of the Passover, when
Jesus knew that his hour had come to depart out of this world to
the Father, having loved his own who were in the world, he loved
them to the end.'  NORVAL GELDENHUYS argues that this
translation, followed by the A.V. and N.I.V. among others, is
MISLEADING because it DETACHES the Last supper from the Passover.
He suggests that the expression 'before the feast' should be
CONNECTED with the verb 'knowing' (eidos). Thus the translation
would read: 'Knowing (already) before Passover that His hour had
come to depart out of this world unto His Father, Jesus, he who
loved his own in this world, loved them unto the end (or 'to the
uttermost').'
     
     According to this translation (which is followed by
Weymouth, Knox, Moffat and others), John does NOT wish to DETACH
the events of the Last Supper from the Passover. Rather he gives
a REASON for their occurrence, namely, Jesus KNEW IN ADVANCE of
His impending death at Passover and, consequently, He showed His
love towards His disciples....among other things, He washed his
disciples' feet.
     John often attributes to Christ's FOREKNOWLEDGE the REASON
for His ACTIONS (see John 12: 7, 23;  13: 3, 11, 18;  !8: 4;  19:
28).  In this case it was the FOREKNOWLEDGE of the occurrence of
His DEATH.......

LAST SUPPER IN THE SYNOPTIC GOSPELS

     The synoptic Gospels CONSISTENTLY and REPEATEDLY speak of
the Last Supper as ' the PASSOVER.'  The disciples ask Jesus,
'Where will you have us to go and prepare for you TO EAT the
Passover?' (Mark 14: 12; cf. Matt. 26: 17; Luke 22: 7-9). In
Luke 22: 15, Jesus Himself declares: 'I have earnestly desired to
EAT THIS PASSOVER with you before I suffer.' The phrase 'to eat
the passover,' which occurs AGAIN in Jesus' instructions to His
disciples (Mark 14: 15; Matt. 26: 18; Luke 22: 11), refers
EXCLUSIVELY to the PASSOVER meal, which was the essence of the
celebration of the festival. The EATING of the Passover meal was
a sign of unity with God and dependence on divine care. It served
to establish a bond of unity between God and His people......

     Several other POSITIVE indications in the synoptic
SUBSTANTIATE that the Last Supper was a PASSOVER MEAL. In his
commentary on THE GOSPEL OF MARK, William L. LANE offers a
concise summary of such indications:

      'The return to Jerusalem in the evening for the meal (Mark
14: 17; cf. Matt.26: 18; Luke 22: 10) is SIGNIFICANT, for the
PASCHAL meal had to be eaten within the city walls (M. Pesachim
V11. 9). An ORDINARY meal was taken in the late AFTERNOON,
but a meal which began in the EVENING and CONTINUED into the
NIGHT reflects PASSOVER practice (Ex.12: 8; Jubilees 49: 12). The
reference to RECLINING (Mark 14: 18) satisfies a REQUIREMENT of
the Passover feast in the FIRST century when custom demanded that
even the poorest man RECLINE for the festive meal (M. Pesachim X.
1). While a NORMAN meal BEGAN with the BREAKING OF BREAD, on THIS
occasion Jesus BROKE the bread DURING the meal and FOLLOWING the
serving of a dish (Mark 14: 18-20, 22). The Passover meal was the
one occasion when the serving of the dish PRECEDED the breaking
of the bread. The use of WINE was generally reserved for festive
occasions and was characteristic of the Passover (M. Pesachim X.
1).  FINALLY, the interpretation of the ELEMENTS of the meal
CONFORM to Passover CUSTOM where the haggadah (or interpretation)
is an INTEGRAL part of the meal. The CUMULATIVE EVIDENCE supports
the claim made in verses 12, 14, and 16 (of Mark 14) that the
disciples PREPARED a PASSOVER meal and that the EXTERNAL FORMS of
the Passover were observed at the meal itself.' 

THE LAST SUPPER IN THE GOSPEL OF JOHN

     In the Gospel of John only FEW details of the Last Supper
are given, because, as GELDENHUYS explains, 'He assumes that his
readers are quite aware of the fact that this meal was the
PASCHAL repast which the Lord celebrated with His disciples on
the EVENING before His crucifixion, and that He then instituted
the Holy Communion. For this reason he MERELY refers to it by the
single word DEIPNON (supper) WITHOUT stating expressly what
precise meal it was. He knew that the FIRST THREE Gospels and
also the Epistles of Paul gave a FULL ACCOUNT of the celebration
of the paschal repast and the institution of the Holy Communion.
Consequently he does NOT REPEAT the same facts, but mentions a
few SUPPLEMENTARY OCCURRENCES that took place DURING that meal,
as they made a great impression on him and had NOT been described
in the OTHER Gospels.'

     Though John does not explicitly designate the Last supper as
a Passover meal for the reasons just mentioned, there are
indications that he ALSO regarded the meal shared by Christ with
His disciples as a PASCHAL MEAL. 
     The meal takes place WITHIN Jerusalem even though the city
was thronged with pilgrims (John 12: 12, 18, 20; 13: 2; 18: 1;
cf. Mark 14: 17). During His last stay in Jerusalem, Jesus
regularly left the holy city in the evening and went to Bethany
(Mark 11: 11, 19; Luke 19: 29; 21: 37), but at the time of the
Last supper, He REMAINED in the overcrowded city. Why? Because,
as mentioned earlier, it was a RULE that the Paschal lamb had to
be eaten within the gates of Jerusalem (For documentation and
discussion, see Joachim Jeremias, 'The Eucharistic Words of
Jesus' Oxford, England, 1995, pp 15-16).
     The supper is held in the EVENING and lasts into the NIGHT
(John 13: 30; cf. Mark 14: 17). The ORDINARY supper was NOT held
at night, but late in the AFTERNOON (see Josephus, Jewish Wars 2,
8, 5.). The Last supper began in the EVENING and lasted into the
NIGHT because, as Joachim Jeremias explains, 'the Passover had to
be eaten at NIGHT ever since its institution (Joachim Jeremias -
note 10, p.18).
     The meal was RELIGIOUS in character, and the participants
RECLINED at the table (John 13: 12, 23, 25, 28; cf. Mark 14: 18).
At an ORDINARY meal, diners sat down to eat, as indicated by
rabbinical courses (Ibid., p. 20). At the Last Supper, however,
Jesus and His disciples did NOT sit; they RECLINED, because 'at
Passover, as a symbol of LIBERTY, it was the RITUAL duty of the
people present to RECLINE at the table even - as is expressly
stated for 'the poor man in Israel'  '(Ibid. p. 26).
     Finally, AFTER the meal Jesus did NOT return to Bethany as
He had done the preceding night. He walked to the Garden of
Gethsemane (John 18: 1-2).  The reason is that custom dictated
that 'the night of Passover had to be spent in Jerusalem
(contemporary exegesis derived this command from Deut. 16: 7). In
order to make possible the observance of this command, the city
district had been enlarged to include Bethphag. Bethany, however,
lay OUTSIDE the ENLARGED city district ' (Ibid. p. 31).

     The ABOVE indications suggest that John, like the synoptic
writers, regarded the Last Supper that Jesus shared with His
disciples as a PASSOVER MEAL. "

End of quotes from Dr. Samuele Bacchiocchi's book


WHEN FOOT-WASHING?

     Dr. Bacchiocchi goes into the meaning of the foot-washing
that John relates in his Gospel, chapter 13.

     He has this comment (page 63), ".....the foot-washing took
place either DURING or AFTER the Lord's supper. TEXTUAL evidence
is DIVIDED on whether John 13: 2 should read 'supper being ended'
or 'while supper was in progress.' "

     What does he mean by "textual evidence"?  Well up until the
1800s, in the GREEK texts there was no dispute. The NT was formed
from all the Greek texts retained by the Greek church or people.
In those texts the words for John 13: 2 are in the "aorist"
tense, which is a completed action sometime in the past. The
scholars of the King James Version had no trouble in translating
from the Greek texts (called The Textus Receptus  - the received
text), and so rendered it as it was in those texts...."supper
being ENDED" (past tense).

     Her in part, from the "Preface to the New King James
Version" (Personal Study Edition, 1990, 1995 by Thomas Nelson
Inc.) is the overview:

     "The King James New Testament was based on the traditional
text of the Greek speaking churches.....and later called the
Textus Receptus or Received Text.......Since the 1880s most
contemporary translations of the New Testament have relied upon a
relatively few manuscripts DISCOVERED chiefly in the LATE
nineteenth and early twentieth centuries. Such translations
depend primarily on TWO manuscripts, Codex Vaticanus and Codex
Sinaiticus.....However, some scholars have grounds for doubting
the faithfulness of Vaticanus and Sinaiticus, since they often
DISAGREE with one another, and Sinaiticus exhibits excessive
omissions....."

     Well the whole story of all this takes a book to relate
(which I have in my library), but the short of it is that the
Sinaiticus manuscript was found in a Roman Catholic Monastery at
Mt. Sinai (hence the name) by a fellow named Tischendorf, who
discovered it in a basket full of parchments destined for the
FIRE!....That is how much the scholars at that Monastery thought
about it.....only fit to be burned!!
     The Vaticanus....well it had been around the Vatican Library
since 1481 at least (it was listed in a catalog of 1481). Nobody
seems to know how it got there or when. The scholars of the
Vatican had not bothered with it....I guess they thought it not
that important.

     The guys that put these two manuscripts on the map, so to
speak, were two fellows by the names of Wescott and Hort. It
takes a good part of a book to relate the theology of those two
guys (which I have in my library)....to put it bluntly, they were
way out in left field, from the planet Pluto...Plutonic we could
say.

     Well, most of the modern translations are based upon these
two corrupt "and do not agree with each other" manuscripts, that
would have been better to have been put in the fire (as one of
them was found in the basket for things destined for the fire),
but sad to say they were not, and so much corruption as taken
place in the translating of the NT since the 1800s.

     The Textus Receptus and the so-called Majority Text (a
consensus of the majority of existing Greek manuscripts. Is very
similar to the Textus Receptus, but corrects those readings which
have little or no support in the Greek manuscript tradition), are
translated from the "aorist" tense in the Greek of John 13: 2. 
Hence the KJV scholars of 1611 and J. P. Green of the 20th
century (in his Greek/English Interlinear) translate it "supper
being ENDED."

     And that is what it should be. The foot-washing was AFTER
the main supper of the Passover, that was celebrated at the
BEGINNING or the EVENING of the 14th day of the first month in
the Jewish calendar year. 

               ..............................

Written January 2003
     

 

 


 

 


 












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