Saturday, August 31, 2024

NEW TESTAMENT CHURCH GOVERNMENT— ANSWERING ARGUMENTS ONCE MORE

 

Church Government

What the New Testament teaches on how churches should be governed

                                              Part Three

                                                    by
                                             Keith Hunt


Mr.Norman Edwards has written an interesting and edifying paper
entitled "How Does the Eternal Govern Through Humans?" For the
most part, as much as 90% I would estimate, I have no problem,
and would agree with what he states. I do take issue with some of
his comments. If in any way I am not understanding correctly
what he is saying, I apologize.Yet I am hoping my answers will
still be of benefit to those studying this important topic. From
this point on Norman Edwards will sometimes be referred to as
N.E. for short.

N.E.

The Major King James Translation Errors

"Ordination" Doctrine Forced into Bible. Most people understand
an "ordination" to be a decision made by the Eternal that is
marked here on Earth by a ceremony, or by "the laying on of
hands" or possibly just witnessed by believers. You cannot find
this in an original-language Bible. What is the Greek word for
ordain? There is no word! There are 13 different Greek words that
are occasionally translated "ordain" in the King James Version.
Every one of these Greek words is usually translated as some
other English word. For example, the KJV Mark 3:14 says:
"He ordained twelve that they should be with him, and that he
might send them forth to preach." The Greek poieo is translated
"ordain" here but it is a very general word used over 500 times,
usually translated "do" or "make." The Greek cannot mean a
ceremony or laying on or hands. "He made twelve" - that is all.
Some of the other words translated "ordain" do have a meaning
closer to "mark out publicly" or "to arrange," but none of
them have a meaning anywhere close to the Greek hagiazo which
means "to set apart for a holy purpose."

You can easily verify these facts with a Strong's or Young's
concordance. The invention of the "ordination" doctrine is also
evident in the Old Testament where 11 different Hebrew words are
occasionally translated "ordain." Many "church government" ideas
crumble when you realize that the concept of an "ordained
ministry" is simply not in the Bible.


MY ANSWER

     True, in a "religious" context, most people do understand
the word ordination to mean a ceremony of some kind and type. But
to say that ceremony is a "decision made by the Eternal that is
marked here on Earth" is another question all together. Because
men may claim such a thing does not make it so. Jesus said many
would claim Him as "Lord, Lord" - they would claim they were
Christians, yet would not do what He taught. And on the day of
reckoning Christ will say to them, "depart from me, you that work
lawlessness."
     Many things are done "in the name of God" - yet the truth of
the matter is, God is NOT IN THEM AT ALL!

     As I showed in part two of this study, an ordination
service/ceremony of and by itself does not make a man a true
minister/elder/overseer of the Eternal.

     Yes, if you are looking for some special Greek word that
signifies "ordination ceremony" as we English think of the words
in a religious context, you will not find it anywhere in the
Bible!

The Greek words sometimes translated as ordain in the KJV, DO NOT
WITHIN THEMSELVES, intrinsically carry any meaning of "ceremony."

     Now, by itself, what does that prove? Does it prove
ANYTHING? The question is not really the inherent meaning of
these Greek words, for several Greek words used in connection
with "ceremony" do not carry ceremony within them, but the
question is: Can we show from the Bible that the Eternal approves
or dis-approves of His church having ceremonial consecration,
"setting apart" - ordination services for men called and chosen
to His spiritual ministry?

     Let us look at a few other Greek words that we use and think
of as connected with ceremony, yet in truth have nothing to do
with ceremony per se.

     We covered one of these words in part two. The word being
BAPTIZE. In the Greek baptisma as a noun, and baptizoo as a verb.
Both are derived from bapto - meaning to dip. I refer you to such
works as Vine's Expository Dictionary of NT Words
for a complete understanding and use of the above.
     What we need to note here is that NOWHERE inherent within
the above words is there ANYTHING to do with "ceremony" - a
"baptismal ceremony" or public service (small or large in numbers
of attendants) of any kind! Is it therefore evil, pagan, sin, or
even wrong, for the Christian Church of God to establish as a
basic tradition, the practice of public baptismal services or
ceremonies?
     I believe most would answer: Of course not! Why is it not
wrong? Because we have Biblical EXAMPLES of public (large and
small gatherings) baptismal services!

John the Baptist in what is recorded for us, did all his
baptizing in the river Jordan, out in public view, with possibly
hundreds of people watching from all walks of life. Jesus was
baptized by John in the river Jordan. with again possibly
hundreds looking on. Three thousand were baptized by the
apostles/disciples on the Day of Pentecost after Peter's
sermon. Surely these baptisms were a public affair.
     There must have been something said and done during those
baptisms. We certainly know something was done, the person being
baptized was put under the water by the person doing the
baptizing. In the examples above where many were being
baptized over a period of hours, there would have been order and
a logical format established. There would have been what we think
and understand in English, as a baptismal service or ceremony
taking place. A ceremony where things were being said and done in
an organized and orderly manner, with others looking on.
     The Christian church has from these and other examples
correctly taught that from a religious theological church
doctrine stance, there is nothing wrong with, and there is
authority from God, to establish a tradition and custom of public
ceremony baptisms, without the need for the word baptism/baptize
to intrinsically mean "ceremony."

     One more word example - the Greek word for marriage. The
noun is gamos, and the verbs are from gameoo etc. See Vine's
Dictionary.
     The noun is usually found with words such as "feast" or
"garment." So we have in the NT "marriage feast." and "wedding
garment."
     There is nothing inherent, inborn, innate, in the word
itself to do with "ceremony." You may want to take a few minutes
or hours and peruse some of the Bible Dictionaries or Hand Books
on the development of marriage ceremonies. You will be amazed at
what you will discover. Obviously the first marriage ceremony was
the simplest in terms of other humans in attendance, as there
were none - only Adam and Eve. But it did not stay that way, in
the process of time many different cultures developed many
different customs of "marriage ceremonies" and "wedding feasts."
     Nothing in the word "marriage" itself establishes such
customs and ceremonies. Not even any direct command from the
Eternal to bring this man and woman together "in the prescribed
ceremonial pattern I give you to follow."
     It "just isn't there folks." You cannot find it in the word
"marriage" nor in any command of instructions from the Eternal.
Nothing about "ceremony" for marriage. Yet, does that mean it is
pagan, or sin, or wrong, for the Christian church to establish a
tradition of performing a marriage ceremony/service for those
called together to be husband and wife?
     No! Of course not! And why does the Christian church believe
it is not wrong to have marriage ceremonies or services? Well,
one very good reason indeed. Jesus (God in the flesh) gave His
approval to man made marriage/wedding feasts and ceremonies,
when He attended one in Cana of Galilee and turned many gallons
of water into the very best of wine, so the attending people
could rejoice.
     Take a few minutes and investigate the traditional Jewish
marriage feast, it is quite revealing.
     There is nothing in the word of God to command us to observe
a marriage in the way the Jews did or do observe it. Nothing in
the word to tell us to do it this or that way either. Nothing in
the word marriage itself to instruct us concerning ceremony. But
it is clear from the examples in the Bible (i.e. marriage feast or
supper of the Lamb Rev.19) that God has approved of His people
establishing public marriage ceremonies, feasts, services, or
whatever you want to call such organized proclamations of
sanctifications to holy consecration.

     So it is with men called, and selected to serve in the body
of Christ. Called to serve in a certain specific function -
either as spiritual overseers/elders or as physical
servers/deacons (and as concerning the physical, women as
deaconesses).
     We have before shown and proved that Acts 6 was some kind of
physical service/ceremony, done in an open public church setting
to some degree (several elders and disciples involved), with
certain physical things performed. And all this was done to
men who were to be set apart officially for the church, in the
performing of physical duties - to serve tables! If such an
example of ceremony is given concerning the consecration,
appointment, ordination, of men to physical duty within the
congregation, HOW MUCH MORE DO YOU SUPPOSE THE CEREMONY OF
CONSECRATION TO SPIRITUAL OVERSEERSHIP SHOULD BE FOR MEN CALLED
AND PROVED?

     The Christian church as a whole has seen that from the
example of the consecration service/ceremony of Aaron in the Old
Testament (covered in part two) and that recorded in Acts chapter
six for deacons, God has given His approval for His NT
church to establish as a traditional custom, an ordination
ceremony/service for those called to be elders or deacons.

     God most certainly does have an appointed, called, elected,
chosen, proved, ordained ministry in the church, the body of
Christ! God certainly does have an appointed/ordained ministry in
the true Church of God. Those ministers have been recognized and
publicly consecrated by other existing elders and disciples. Ones
to come will also be so openly shown to the people and the world.

     The appointed/ordained ceremony of an individual to the
spiritual overseership or deaconship, does not automatically
transform them into a true elder or deacon in the body
of Christ, IF they have not already been living in word and deed
as an elder or deacon. Just as a person receiving their doctor
diploma at an official ceremony, is not a true doctor, if they
have not been living in theory and deed, the qualifications and
standards that are required for being a doctor.
     Doctors are put through the test, in mental theory (study
etc.) and practical work usually as interns before any public
recognition is granted them. This is not done overnight, nor
should it be, because of the grave responsibility put on the
shoulders of those entering the medical profession.
     Similarly, for those who would desire the function of
elder/overseer in the church (which desire is not necessarily
wrong - 1 Tim.3:1), there should be a long time testing and
proving - many years in fact. Paul said the church
servers/deacons should be proved (1 Tim.3:10). If proving was
necessary for them who would serve in physical things, then how
much more do you suppose, is proving necessary for spiritual
elders?
     I tell you that to meet the required qualifications given by
Paul under inspiration of the Holy Spirit, for church overseer in
1 Timothy 3, takes MANY years. The very word elder carries with
it the meaning of older. The reader may want to request my
in-depth article called "Qualifications For The Ministry" if they
would like to study this more, but I will be posting it up on my blog.

     Those who have been ordained to the church eldership and
were not qualified, or did not have the true heart and mind, or
were ordained because of church politics, only prove one thing:
The devil can appear as an angel of light, or can come as a wolf
in sheeps clothing. Men may have been fooled, BUT GOD CANNOT BE!
And the fruits of such a man's ministry will eventually be
revealed, for Jesus said that by their fruits we shall know them.
The true child of God who has his/her nose in the Bible, who
lives and thinks true Christianity, will know who are the true
faithful elders of the Lord.

     Because the homosexual community conducts marriage
ceremonies and ordination to the ministry services for its
followers, does this mean the true body of Christ cannot
do likewise? I guess not!

     The word of the Eternal, not by any specific word with some
special inherent meaning, BUT BY CLEAR EXAMPLE (Lev.8; Mark
3:13-14; Luke 612,13; Acts 6:1-7; 14:23; Titus 1:5-9; 1 Tim.5:22)
teaches us that it is appropriate, fitting, relevant, and
correct, for the Church of God to practice the public
acknowledgment that men have been appointed/ordained to serve as
elders in the body of Christ.

N.E.

Ministers and Deacons Not Different. They are both servants. Most
KJV uses of the word "minister" are translated from the Greek
diaakonos (noun) or the diakoneo (verb meaning "to minister").
All occurrences of deacon and deaconess are translated from
these same words - the New Testament writers could not possibly
have had two "offices" in mind and then used an identical word
for both of them! How could you "raise someone in rank" from a
diakonos to a diakonos? King James 1 needed to justify his church
offices from the Bible so his translators supplied him what he
needed. Furthermore, diakonos, does not imply any kind of
elevated or ecclesiastical position, but means a real working
servant and is so translated many times: "but the servant who had
drawn the water knew [that it was created by a miracle]"
(John 2:9). Diakonos could not mean a "teacher" in the
congregation because it is used to describe women which were
forbidden to teach (1 Tim 2:12). Martha "served" the
Messiah (John l2:2) and Phebe was a "servant of the Church''(Rom
16:1). The Scriptures do not support the traditionally taught two
classes of people: the "ministry" and the "lay members." (The
latter term is not found even in the KJV.) Had the Greek diakonos
always been translated "servant," people would have understood
the Messiah's organization much better.

MY ANSWER

     Ministers and Deacons are not different...... well, in one
way. Yet they are different! But then again they are not
different. Seems like I am contradicting myself doesn't it? All a
little confusing to you? Hang on, hold your horses, don't gallop
away into the sun-set. l will fully explain, and I hope make it
quite clear.
     Many will no doubt think this Greek word diakonos/diakoneo
is used dozens of times, all over the place, in the NT. That is
not the case!

     They are used quite a number of times, about 65 times
altogether. Then the Greek words
doulos/doulia/douluo/doulon/douloo also translated serve/servant,
are used even more times in the NT. See the Englishman's Greek
Concordance pages 145, 163, 164.

     Here is what the Vine's Complete Expository Dictionary has
to say concerning the word "deacon" on page 147.

     "diakonos.........primarily denotes a 'servant,' whether as
doing servile work, or as an attendant rendering free service,
without particular reference to its character. The word is
probably connected with the verb diookoo, ' to hasten after,
pursue' (perhaps originally said of a runner). It occurs in the
NT of domestic servants, John 2:5,9; the civil ruler, Rom.13:4;
Christ, Rom.15:8; Gal.2: 17; the followers of Christ in relation
to their Lord, John 12:26; Eph.6:21; Col.1:7; 4:7; the followers
of Christ in relation to one another, Matt.20:26; 23:1; Mark
9:35; 1 0:43; the servants of Christ in the work of preaching and
teaching, 1 Cor.3:5; 2 Cor.3:6; 6:4; 11:23; Eph.3:7; Col.1:23,25;
1 Thes.3:2; 1 Tim.4:6; those who serve in the churches, Rom.16:1
(used of a woman here only in the NT); Phil.1: 1; 1 Tim.3: 8,12;
false prophets, servants of Satan, 2 Cor.11: 15. Once diakonos
is used where, apparently, angels are intended, Matt.22:13; in
v.3 where men are intended, doulos is used.
     Diakonos is, generally speaking, to be distinguished from
doulos, 'a bondservant, slave'; diakonos views a servant in
relationship to his work; doulos views him in relationship to his
master. See, e.g., Matt.22:2-4; those who bring in the
guests (vv.34,6,8,10) are douloi; those who carry out the king's
sentence (v.13) are diakonoi.
     Note: As to synonymous terms, leitourgos denotes 'one who
performs public duties'; misthios and misthotos, 'a hired
servant'; olketes, 'a household servant'; huperetes, 'a
subordinate official waiting on his superior' (originally an
under-rower in a war-galley); therapon, 'one whose service is
that of freedom and dignity.' See MINISTER, SERVANT.
     The so-called 'seven deacons' in Acts 6 are not there
mentioned by that name, though the kind of service in which they
were engaged was of the character of that committed to such."

     End quote from Vine.

     I gave you the full quotation from Vine's. 

     The word diakonos (the verb is diakoneo) is, I will call it,
an UMBRELLA word, under which several persons shelter, a tent
type of umbrella. The following diagram I believe will illustrate
the truth of what Vine's Dictionary brought out.


                   D  I  A  K  O  N  O  S
    
_____________________________________________________________

Domestic/Civil Ruler/Disciples/Christ/Teachers/Servers/Angels

     The umbrella word diakonos......C O V E R S.....all of the
above people and spirit beings, BUT all of the above persons
though the same diakonos in the meaning of servers, are DIFFERENT
from each other in function and even in authority. It is
something like saying: All Californians are Americans, but not
all Americans are Californians.

     A civil ruler, gudge, police officer, etc. is a diakonos but
his function and authority is quite DIFFERENT from the domestic
servant diakonos. They are both diakonos - both the same in one
sense, yet both different in function and responsibilities.
     The angelic beings are diakonos - servers, yet their
function and authority is NOT the same, it is different from the
function and authority of civil rulers.
     Jesus Christ is a diakonos. He serves also (one function is
as our High Priest, interceding for us). His function and
authority is not to be compared to the function and authority of
domestic servants.
     Satan the devil also has diakonos members in his band of
followers, they appear as the diakonos of righteousness, but in
fact are the diakonos of evil - the Devil himself
(2 Cor.11:13-15). In no way is the function and authority of
Satan's diakonos to be compared to the function and authority of
the disciples/diakonos of Jesus Christ.

     THERE IS A DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE DIAKONOS! All are
"diakonos" but not all function the same, not all even have the
same authority! Jesus is a diakonos (servant), but His function
and authority is higher than any other except the heavenly
Father. The civil ruler diakonos has in his particular functions
certain authority over the diakonos of the followers of Christ.
Try saying he does not if you are hauled before the courts
because you broke the speed limit law, and see how far it gets
you. The diakonos of Jesus have more authority over spiritual
matters than the un-converted domestic diakonos of the world.

     So it is in the Church, the body of Christ. All in that body
are diakonos - servants in one way or another, but not all
diakonos have the same function, nor even the same authority. The
seven men chosen to "serve tables" and to see that certain
"widows" were taken care of in physical necessities, spoken about
in Acts chapter six, were given a particular function and with
that function, a certain authority. It was given to them by the
apostles/elders and the church. They had the authority to
literally hand out, as they deemed proper, physical goods to
members of the church. Someone else from who knows where, walking
into the store house of the church and deciding to take what he
wanted to give to whom he wanted, could be stopped and prevented
from doing so by any one of the seven. For it was THEY who had
authority over such matters, and functioned in that
administrative duty, and not just "blow Joe" from Tim-buck-too.

     Paul went into some detail concerning all the diakonos
functions in the body of Christ with the church at Corinth. It is
found in 1 Corinthians chapter 12. The eye has a certain function
within the body, even a certain amount of authority over its
function. The foot has function with authority over its duty. The
foot cannot function as an eye, it was not designed to do so, nor
was it given the abilities or gifts to function as an eye. The
foot cannot authorize itself to see. The eyes cannot function as
feet, or claim authority to move down to the ankles and become
feet.

     All the members of the body are "parts" - all serve - all
are in that sense diakonos, but not all are the SAME, there are
DIFFERENCES, otherwise all would be an eye, or all would be a
foot, or all would be a hand. And if all were a foot or ear or
hand, WHERE WOULD THE BODY BE?

     The Church of God is ONE body - we are ALL servants/servers
- we are all diakonos, but we have DIFFERENT FUNCTIONS and with
those functions goes varying differences of authority.
     If it was not so, then as Paul points out, we would be one
part not many parts, and if we were only one part then there
would be no body. Yet, thankfully as he showed, there are many
members (parts/functions/responsibilities) which make up that one
body.

     As we have previously expounded, there is an eldership
ministry - an eldership/overseeing diakonos in the body of
Christ. And there is also a specific chosen class of individuals
called and appointed, to the function of administrating physical
duties. They are the diakonos of "tables."
     Both classes of elected persons, for basic functions of the
duties they are called and appointed/ordained to do, are servants
- diakonos. Yet, in saying that I still need to emphasis that
THERE IS A DIFFERENCE, THEY ARE NOT THE SAME in function or
authority.

     Even within the eldership not all function in the same way.
There is differences in the eldership ministry. God inspired Paul
to break it down into various "parts" of that bodily function.
Some were to function as apostles, some as prophets, some as
teachers, and so on (1 Cor.12:28). Apparently by using the words
"first" - "secondarily" - "thirdly" God shows that He gives a
higher function to certain sections of the eldership part of the
body of Christ. I have before proved we are here talking about
function not dictatorial "rank" authority. Nevertheless. we can
see that there are DIFFERENCES even in the overseership of the
church.

DIFFERENCES BETWEEN ELDERS AND DEACONS

     Surely after all that I have presented in this study so far
of over one hundred pages, the reader can clearly see that the NT
church does have a body of men who have been called by God to be
OVERSEERS, GUIDES, SHEPHERDS. SPIRITUAL ELDERS AND LEADERS over
the rest of the membership in the body of Christ. Surely a simple
reading of the NT will give the truth of the matter on that
understanding. If some still want to argue to the contrary, all I
can say is that if they are correct, then words of the NT do
not mean what they say and do not say what they mean. So nothing
in the NT is reliable. But that is not the case. The NT is quite
clear, there is an eldership ministry function within the Church
of God.

     We see from the first chapters of the book of Acts, HOW that
ministry did function. Up to the beginning of chapter six the
apostles - the appointed elders - LED the way, guided the way,
taught the way. From the last part of chapter four and the
beginning of chapter five, also what the apostles said to the
disciples in the first few verses of chapter six, it is clear
that the elders functioned BOTH in the overseership of the
spiritual and the physical. They had jurisdiction and authority
over both aspects of the church - the spiritual religious and the
physical administrative.

     When the trouble erupted between the disciples over the
neglect of certain widows (chapter six) and the apostles made the
decision as what to do about it, namely, others were to "take
over" and be responsible for this physical duty, they were in
effect handing over, delegating part of their overseership to
others. As Jesus once said concerning the Father and Himself,
"the one sent is not greater than he who sent him." And on
another occasion "The Father is greater than I."

     The elders, in delegating other individuals to the function
of official servers of physical concerns in the church, did not
in so doing, make those persons greater in function and authority
than themselves. In fact the ones sent to function cannot be as
great in function and authority as the senders, especially as
this was a function to physical duties only.
     Was there a DIFFERENCE still existing between the diakonos
of the apostles/elders and the diakonos of those who were to
"serve tables"? Oh, you bet there was!

     The diakonos of the seven were to meet many of the same
qualifications that Paul later laid down for the men who would be
overseers in the church (1 Tim.3). And why not! The apostles were
handing over HALF THE DUTY THEY HAD BEEN DOING! It would have
been quite irresponsible for the apostles, not to have done it
the way they did. A high and important administration duty
falling under the total functioning of the elders work, demands a
highly qualified person.
     Yet, you will notice in Acts chapter six and also in 1
Timothy 3 that those individuals chosen for physical duties DID
NOT HAVE TO TEACH OR TAKE CARE OF THE CHURCH IN ANY SPIRITUAL
OFFICIAL WAY, AS DID THE "EPISKOPOS" - OVERSEER, OF 1 TIM.3:1.

     Paul makes a deliberate Greek word DIFFERENCE in 1 Timothy
3. He gives the specific qualifications for those who will be
"episkopos" in the church, who will as this study has before
shown, be overseers, elders, spiritual guides and leaders, those
who will shepherd the flock. Then in verse eight he gives the
qualifications for servers - diakonos - deacons. The context must
show a difference between the two or Paul is needlessly repeating
himself. And there are differences, namely the two most important
ones I have given before - teaching and care of the church (verses
2, 5).

     The context of 1 Timothy 3 leaves us in no doubt that Paul
was specifically talking about TWO very important, nay, about the
two MOST important functions in the working church, that of
spiritual elder and that of physical administrator (or deacon as
most churches call them). Any other explanation falls under the
weight of NT evidence, for if Paul was addressing ALL saints, all
Christians, throughout the church, he could have used words such
as "saint" or "church" or "brethren." Again if he was addressing
all the saints to encourage all of them to attain these
qualifications and goals, then the whole body would be an eye or
a nose or a foot, and where would the body be then?

     The apostles had decided the physical affairs that they had
been administrating as part of their complete shepherding of the
church, should be handled by qualified persons. Individuals who
would be called and elected and whom the elders would
"appoint over this business" (as we saw in part two of this
study). They were chosen to "serve tables" only - serve in
physical matters. They did not have to as an official function
preach, teach, or do any spiritual caring or guiding of the
church, for that the apostles/elders would retain as their number
one concern and responsibility.

     THAT MY FRIEND IS THE BASIC DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THOSE
APPOINTED TO THE SPIRITUAL ELDERSHIP AND THOSE APPOINTED TO
PHYSICAL SERVINGSHIP/DEACONSHIP.

     There is a difference between ministers and deacons (as the
words are customarily used in today's popular church language).

     So there will not be any misunderstanding, I refer you back
to my earlier pages in the first section and main body of this
work. On a personal basis, everyone in the body of Christ is free
to spread the gospel in letters, written articles, speech, and
whatever the Spirit of God leads one to do, large or small, near
or far. This is what Stephen and Philip (two of the seven
appointed to serve tables) did. Many today call it "personal
evangelism." And that is precisely what it is. But they were not
called to officially function as elders to "take care of the
Church of God."

     Paul said in the context of deaconship to Timothy, "they
that have diakonos well, purchase to themselves a good
degree...."(1 Tim.3:13).
     The Greek for "good degree" means actually "a step" such as
in a stair case. Certainly such individuals will go on to
perfection as all Christians should strive for, but
also will earn respectability from fellow humanity.
     It will also be a step, if the Lord calls and appoints a
man, to the eldership. Many a fine elder has come to that
appointment through first learning to be faithful in the
physical things, growing in grace and knowledge of Christ Jesus,
and after being proved and tested, given the responsibility to
spiritually "take care of the Church of God."

     Ministers and Deacons are not different, then again
Ministers and Deacons are different. No it is not a
contradiction. Now I hope you know and understand that both are
correct.

     Mr. Edwards writes: " The Scriptures do not support the
traditionally taught two classes of people: the 'ministry' and
the 'lay members.' "
     That is indeed very true! What the NT does teach and support
is one body of diakonos persons divided into FOUR classes. The
first class is really a class by itself apart from the other
three classes, which are joined into one diakonos to and under
the  first diakonos. Really got you wondering now haven't I.

     Christ Jesus is the first diakonos - servant - perfect,
sin-less, chief Shepherd of the church. He was the first human to
be raised to eternal life by the Father. He is in a class all by
Himself. Everyone else comes under Him, yet He is willing to have
them joined to Him, willing to call them His brothers and
sisters. And those brothers and sisters with all their differing
gifts and talents distributed by the Holy Spirit, make up the
varying parts of the "body of Christ" (1 Cor.12). Those parts all
come together as ONE under THREE classes of diakonos - servants.

     This clear proof in given throughout the NT by putting
scripture with scripture. Then thankfully this proof is given
very plainly to us in one verse! It's been there all along
friend, I did not put it in your Bible during the night. Will you
believe it? Will you let it teach you the plain truth? The true
Church of God is made up of THREE classes of people!

     Turn to it, and mark it! Philippians chapter one and verse
one!

     This is how the Greek reads: "Paul and Timotheus,
bondmen (doulos) of Jesus Christ, to all the saints (agiois) in
Christ Jesus who are in Philippi, WITH the overseers (episkopois)
AND those who serve (diakonois)."

     CAN THERE BE ANY MISUNDERSTANDING? Paul addresses the church
at Philippi - addresses them as having THREE CLASSES, three basic
divisions of functioning people. There are the saints, there are
the overseers, and there are the servers.

     Obviously he contrasts the saints from the servers, and
contrasts them from the overseers. We have seen that all in the
body of Christ come under the umbrella word of diakonos, all in
the body are servants to Christ and to each other. Paul here is
not thinking about that aspect of Christian unity or local church
unity. He is thinking about the basic THREE functioning classes
of people that are within and make up not only the local church
but also the general church.

     There is no other way to understand Paul here, any other way
interprets Paul as repeating himself needlessly, and using
language that would contradict "synonym" use.
     In Paul's mind the church at Philippi consisted of THREE
classes of people that functioned in three ways. There were the
saints in general, who were not functioning as overseers/elders
or deacons. There were overseers/elders who were not functioning
as deacons. And there were servers/deacons who were not
functioning as overseers.
     Here Paul sets the saints in general apart from the
diakonos, showing that there was a class of persons in the church
who functioned in an official appointed way as servers. Why not,
for that official function had been establish by the apostles in
Acts chapter six. Besides that class of persons was also the
official functioning class of elders or overseers, who were
appointed/ordained to "teach" and to "take care of the Church of
God."

     Oh, I better SAY THIS LOUD AND CLEAR, for I know some will,
even after reading all I have written in the first section of
this study, run off - gallop away - and claim I am promoting the
teaching of "authoritarian ranks" within the church. NOTHING
COULD BE FURTHER FROM THE TRUTH!

     The THREE classes of persons Paul mentions are not ranks,
they are functions! God gives the gifts of those functions to
whom He will. Not everyone gets the same gifts, and no matter
what gift is yours, you are not "greater" than your brother or
sister.
     The fruits of the Spirit ALL CAN HAVE, but the gifts of the
Spirit ARE DIFFERENT from one member to another. There are
differences, not in rank, but in function and responsibility.

     Salvation and the fruits of the Spirit are EQUAL for all.
Every member in the body of Christ is on equal footing and the
same playing field, when it comes to those two things. Salvation
and conversion is very personal for everyone. There is no
physical man between you and God, it is that personal. Entering
the Kingdom is not dependent on any flesh and blood person, it is
you, Christ and the Father. Your REWARD will be given based upon
what you do with what you have been given.
     Some little old saint that has never functioned as a deacon,
or as an overseer, may very well be given a higher reward in the
Kingdom because they really increased what they were given, and
some overseer or deacon did not, and so will not receive as high
a reward.
     God is completely fair and righteous, all will receive a
reward according to what they have done with what they were
given. Some just do not have the gifts to be an overseer in the
church, or even function as a deacon, but WOW! They are a dynamo
of a Christian saint, using every gift given them to the fullest.
Another man may have the qualities and gifts to be an elder, yet
never use those gifts to full potential, or go to sleep on them.
He could end up with a lower reward in the Kingdom than the
dynamo saint.
     All of that being the truth of the matter, which it is, does
not negate the truth that God does still have THREE basic
functioning classes of people in His church - overseers,
deacons, and saints. Not necessarily in that order, as Paul
displayed to the church at Philippi.

     Also remember as we have covered in-depth already, when it
comes to personal evangelism, the door is wide open for any
Christian to walk through and "have at it" using his/her natural
abilities together with God's gifts of the Spirit.

                       TO BE CONTINUED

     ..................................................

NEW TESTAMENT CHURCH GOVERNMENT— ARGUMENTS ANSWERED— PART TWO

 

Church Government

What the New Testament teaches on how churches should be governed

                                            Part Two

                                        CONTINUED     



     J.D.

     In the New Testament the selection of elders does have some
commentry. Let's read Acts 14:23.......
     At first reading this seems to be very clearly stated. It
appears that Barnabas and Paul simply appointed some of the
mature men to be elders. But hold your horses! Don't gallop off
so fast! Is that what it really says?.......the Greek word
translated "appointed" is the one we isolated earlier as
"cheirotoneo" .......Literally it means "to stretch forth the
hands." .......
     In the light of our previously reviewed scriptures, who do
you suppose made the actual selection? Who do you think might
have done the voting?


     MY ANSWER:

     Yes indeed, at first reading it does seem to be very clear! 
Okay, we will hold our horses, and not gallop but walk slowly.
     First, as I have said so many times before, the Bible is
basically written in a simple format. Oh, you must find and put
together ALL scriptures on any topic, to ascertain the truth of
the matter, but you do not need a degree in theology from some
Bible institution to understand all the fundamental doctrines of
the Lord. As Jesus said: "Thank you Father that you have hidden
these things from the wise and prudent and have revealed them
unto babes."
     You must become as little children in belief and faith to
enter the Kingdom, so it is taught by Christ.
     The Bible was not written in so-called classical Greek. It
was handed to us written in simple everyday common Greek. Today
we would say it was written in everyday common English, no big
high sounding words, certainly not even close to the language
of lawyers. 
     Yet, although common day to day Greek is the language of the
NT it still employed the use of the basic rules of grammar just
as good common English does.
     One very important rule of grammar and also correct biblical
understanding of any single verse, is to look at and read the
whole context the verse is within.
     Did the scholars and translators of the King James Version
in 1611 make a fundamental grammar mistake here in Acts 14:23 ? 
The context will tell us.

     Let us start way back in chapter thirteen and verse four.
     WHO is the subject of  verse four?  Verse two tells us -
Barnabas and Saul(Paul). Those two men are the "they" mentioned
in verse four.
     Who is the subject of verse five? It is Barnabas and Paul -
the "they."  Look at verse six! Again, who is the subject? Why it
is Paul and Barnabas - the "they."
     Read all the way to verse forty three. The context does
single out Paul saying certain words, yet it is still
"them"(verse 8) and "they" in verses 14. It is "them" in verse
15, and "Paul and Barnabas" in verse 43.
     Who is the subject of verses 44 through to 52?  It is Paul
and Barnabas - the "they" of verse 51.
     Carry on into chapter fourteen. The persons the context
singles out as the who of the subject is "they went both together
into the synagogue of the Jews" - Paul and Barnabas!  Who is the
subject of verse six and seven?  It is "they" - Barnabas and
Paul.
     See verses 11, 12, 14, 18.  WHO IS THE SUBJECT?  It is the
"apostles" - the "they" - the "them" - Barnabas and Paul!
     Move on to verses 19 and 20. The persons who are the subject
are Paul and Barnabas.
     Verses 21,22 it is "they" who are the subject - Paul and
Barnabas.  Notice verse 24. Who is the subject? Why the two
apostles, the same two as in the above verses. What about verses
26 through to 28?  Who is the subject?  It is "they" - Paul and
Barnabas!
     Could ANYTHING BE PLAINER?  The context from chapter 13 to
the end of chapter 14 shows who is the subject of the thought and
the deeds of the whole. And that was Paul and Barnabas!  It is so
simple, common day to day Greek or English, a young child could
understand, that the persons who are the subject of the discord
are the two apostles - Barnabas and Paul. And so using words such
as "they" and "them" is quite within correct grammar.
     The verse under question - verse 23 - is WITHIN THE WHOLE
CONTEXT - within the "who is the subject" of the context. The WHO
(what persons as the main subject) NEVER CHANGES!  The who
remains as Paul and Barnabas!
     From the before and after of the context of verse
twenty-three, it is only logical to continue to use the simple
English grammar rule of "subject" and add the "they" in that
verse. The "they" being still the two apostles - namely Paul and
Barnabas.
     
     We know from the Greek NT itself that Luke (the author of
Acts) did have at his disposal words in the Greek for assembly or
church or congregation or group of persons. If he wanted us to
have no questions as to the fact that it was the whole church
congregation that had final authority and that elected and
ordained these men to be elders, then he could have and should
have (according to common rules of grammar) changed the subject
in verse 23. He could have easily written: "And the churches
appointed themselves elders, and after prayer and fasting they
commended them to the Lord."  Luke would have thus instructed us
that the subject had changed from Paul and Barnabas to the church
or congregation or assembly of believers in Lystra, Iconium, and
Antioch. He could have said: "The assembly of disciples ordained
them elders in every church...." etc. Then in verse 24 used the
names "Paul" and "Barnabas" to bring the who of the subject back
to them for the rest of the chapter. But he did not!  Because of
one simple factor, he never intended us to believe the persons of
the subject of the context HAD CHANGED from the two apostles to
the collective membership of the churches in Anitoch, Iconium,
and Lystra!
     The two apostles - Paul and Barnabas - are the subject (the
"they" and "them") of the context. Luke never changes it from
chapter 13:4 to the end of chapter 14, in fact even into the
first number of verses in chapter 15.
     The rules of grammar leave us with no alternative but to
render verse 23 of chapter 14 as found in the KJV. The scholars
of 1611 were quite correct!
     The unescapable contextual evidence is that it was indeed
Paul and Barnabas, two apostles, and two elders, overseers, that
prayed and fasted, and ordained/appointed elders in every church
in the three towns mentioned. They had the last word as to who
those elders would be.
     
     I did not say that the congregations may not have had some
impute on the final decisions made by Paul and Barnabas as to who
should be ordained as elders. Surely Paul and Barnabas would have
had to do some inquiring, looking carefully, asking questions,
ascertaining who was meeting the qualifications to be elders
within those churches. But as in Acts 6, it was "they" - Barnabas
and Paul - who would finally have the last word, and "whom we may
appoint over this business."

     NOW TO THE WORD "APPOINT" - cheirotoneo.

     Some today are wanting to stress this Greek word
"cheirotoneo."  Telling you that "...in classical Greek, is
primarily used to denote voting in the Athenian legislative
assembly."
     This particular Greek word is used by itself (and I have a
very good reason to say by itself, that we shall come to later)
ONLY TWICE in the entire NT. Here in Acts 14:23 and also in 2
Corinthians 8:19.
      Here is what Strong's Concordance has to say about this
word:  "…..to be a hand-reacher or voter (by raising the hand),
i.e.(ge.) to select or appoint:- choose, ordain."
     The Analytical Greek Lexicon page 436 says:  "....to stretch
out the hand; to constitute by voting; to appoint, constitute,
Ac.14:23; 2 Co.8:19."
     In part Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the NT has this to
say:  ".....extending the hand....a. prop. to vote by stretching
out the hand.......b. to create or appoint by vote......c. with
the loss of the notion of extending the hand (emphasis mine,KH),
to elect, appoint, create......"

     Now I give you the full explanation of this word as given in
Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words, 1985
copyright, page 34. See if you can find one section that is very
revealing and interesting.

     ".....primarily used of voting in the Athenian legislative
assembly and meaning 'to stretch forth the hands' (cheir, 'the
hand,' teino, 'to stretch'), is not to be taken in its literal
sense; it could not be so taken in its compound procheirotoneo,
'to choose before,' since it is said of God, Acts 10:41.
Cheirotoneo is said of 'the appointment' of elders by
apostolic missionaries in the various churches which they
revisited, Acts 14:23, RV, 'had appointed,' i.e., by the
recognition of those who had been manifesting themselves as
gifted of God to discharge the function of elders (see No.2). It
is also said of those who were 'appointed' (not by voting, but
with general approbation) by the churches in Greece to accompany
the apostle in conveying their gifts to the poor saints in Judea,
2 Cor.8:19. See CHOOSE, ORDAIN."

     The NT I repeat was not written in classical Greek, but the
common every day Greek of the average citizen of the Roman
Empire, who did not speak classical Greek.

     We need to be very careful when trying to understand certain
Greek words. Many of them can have various meanings and uses. The
common Greek of the NT was not unlike our common English, many
words had more than one use and not always the original stem
meaning. So it was also in the Hebrew language.
     I hope the following will clearly show you the truth of what
I am stating.  The Church of God Seventh Day in their July-August
1996 edition of The Bible Advocate, under the question and answer
section, had this to say concerning "Is a cross a stake or
a tree?"
     ".......In the English language, a stake or a cross in not a
tree. But we are dealing with basic Hebrew and Greek words
translated into modern English, which, by the way, has changed
tremendously since the King James Version was published. Let's
deal with the Hebrew word for tree first.
     The basic word transliterated ets is a general word for
anything made of wood. It may be a literal tree, a stick of wood,
a shepherd's staff, a stake, or gallows. Read the book of Esther,
particularly the story of Haman. The gallows he arranged to be
built was called an ets.
     So to say that a cross or stake is not a tree is incorrect.
The Hebrew word may mean those objects as well.
     From the Greek word for tree (xulon) we derive our word
xylophone, which means 'wood sound.' The bars are made of wood
and create a pleasing sound when the right person plays them.
This word helps us see that the word for tree in Greek is a
general word for something made of wood. So when the author of
Acts uses xulon, he may not be talking of a literal tree. 
     In fact, Paul and Silas were put in 'trees' in the prison at
Philippi. The usual translation there is 'stocks.' Again, the
Greek word is xulon.
     Interestingly, Luke, who also wrote Acts, uses the word
generally translated 'cross' when telling what Christ was killed
on. In Acts, Luke always uses the general word meaning 'tree' or
'wood.'
     The Greek word translated 'cross,' as best we can translate
it, originally meant 'stake.'  The history of crucifixion usually
says the earliest crucifixions were done on a tree or on a stake.
But the Romans had started using a cross before the time of
Christ. Again, no one seems to know for certain the exact type
used for the crucifixion of Jesus.
     The common forms were the Tau, 'T' shaped, one called the
St.Anthony, 'X' shaped, and the Latin cross traditionally shown
in paintings. One writer of the nineteenth century also listed
one called the 'tree,' shaped like 'Y.' I have not been able to
verify this elsewhere.
     But the exact shape of the cross doesn't matter. It was
something made of wood, thus fulfilling both the Hebrew and Greek
words used for that instrument of death........" (Paul E.
Heavilin).

     Ah, words can have an original basic root meaning but can
also in the process of time be used in a way that does not carry
its original literal root meaning.

     Let me further illustrate with the word "Rock."  From Vine's
Expository Dic. of Old and New Test.Words, page 208, we read: 
"ROCK sur...,'rock; rocky wall; cliff; rocky hill; mountain;
rocky surface; boulder.' .....Other than in names of places and
persons, the word appears 70 times in biblical Hebrew and in all
periods. First, sur means 'rocky wall' or 'cliff.' This is
probably what Moses struck in Exod.17:6.....Thus God hid Moses in
a cleft of the 'rocky cliff' (Exod.33:21-22).
     Second, the word frequently means 'rocky hill' or
'mountain.'  This emphasis clearly emerges in
Isa.2:10,19.....(Num.23:9)......(Deut.32:13)......)Ps.61:2)......
(Job 14:18......(Job 19:24).
     Third, sur can mean 'rocky ground' or perhaps a large flat
'rock.'......(2 Sam.21:10; cf. Prov.30:19).
     Fourth, in some passages the word means 'boulder,' in the
sense of a rock large enough to serve as an
altar......(Judg.6:21).
     'Rock' is frequently used to picture God's support and
defense of His people (Deut.32:15). In some cases this noun is an
epithet, or meaningful name, of God (Deut.32:4), or of heathen
gods:'For their rock(god) is not as our Rock(God).....'
(Deut.32:31).
     Finally, Abraham is the source (rock) from which Israel was
hewn (Isa.51:1)."

     Ah, ah, do you see?  The Hebrew word sur has the basic root
meaning of literal rock, but was also used in a NONE LITERAL
SENSE!  In a way that kept the underlying strength of the word,
its intrinsic quality, but not to be taken in its first literal
meaning. God's support and defense of His people is a "rock." 
Used also as a meaningful name of God.
     Another example is the Greek word gennaoo.  See what Vine's
Dic. says on this word, page 57.
     It is used as "to beget."  It is used of conception.  The
word is used as "to be born."  Used for literal conception and
literal birth.  That is the basic root meaning, yet as Vine's
Dic. points out, the word is used allegorically and
metaphorically. In those instances (some given in Vine's) it would
be ridiculous to take the word in its original literal root
meaning.

     Now back to the word cheirotoneo. 

     Did you note in Vine's Dic. quoted above, the part I said
was of important interest?  I have never seen this quoted by
anyone who wants to hit you between the eyes with its root
meaning in classical Greek.
     Quote from Vine's:  "....to stretch forth the hand.....is
not to be taken in its literal sense; it could not be so taken in
its compound procheirotoneo, "to choose before, since it is said
of God, Acts 10:41...."

     Now please turn to Acts the tenth chapter and verse
forty-one.

     I told you that the word cheirotoneo is only used TWICE in
the NT. Used on its own that is true. But it is used for a THIRD
time in the above verse of Acts ten. Not on its own but with the
prefix "pro" - before. Hence the statement by Vine's
aforementioned.
     
     Acts ten and verse forty tells us that God - the Father -
raised Jesus from the dead and showed Him openly....."Not to all
the people, but unto witnesses CHOSEN BEFORE  of God...."  It was
the Father in heaven who had already ELECTED and pre-determined
WHO the individuals would be to see Jesus after His resurrection!
The Father had pro-cheirotoneo.
     Now ask yourself this question: Did the Father stretch forth
or raise His hand - literally - as He chose or elected these
persons? I think not! He certainly had no need to do so, for who
is greater in authority in the universe? Did He vote with
Himself? Such thoughts are ridiculous! Maybe He voted with Jesus
before His death or right after His resurrection on the matter?
Yet, that does not hold up in the light of John 10:30 and other
scriptures that show Christ and the Father have complete
agreement at all times. There is never any voting among
themselves.
     Then if you want to argue they did vote, how can two vote on
anything and have a majority that wins the day? Oh, I guess if
you are not a part of the Church of God ( and Protestant or Roman
Catholic) you could say the person of the Holy Spirit would cast
the vote to decide the issue. Those of us in the Church of God do
not have that answer!
     
     So the Father would not vote with Himself, He would not vote
with Christ. Perhaps the Father voted with the holy angels or the
twenty four elders in heaven. Maybe the "stretching forth the
hand" and voting on who would see Jesus after His resurrection
was done in heaven by the heavenly host.
     I guess it could have been possible, if you want to argue
for the sake of arguing, and want to believe this word
cheirotoneo must be taken in its literal original classical
Greek meaning at all times.
     Let us suppose this voting and literal raising of the hand
did take place in heaven above with the Father and angelic
beings. My next question to you is: WHO would have the final
authority on the issue? There can be no other answer but the
Father would!
     So voting would be redundant and a waste of time in this
case.  True, God is the author of the proverb: "In the multitude
of counsellors there is safety"(Prov.11:14). But seeking input
and counsel on something is not the same by any means as taking a
democratic vote to let the majority rule.
     God the Father is always the majority!

     The simple logical answer to Acts 10:41 is that the Father
elected, chose, who would see the risen Christ, without any
stretching forth the hand in a vote by anyone. 
     
     The word cheirotoneo as used in the common Greek of the NT
should then be understood as meaning simply, appointed, chosen,
elected, just as the scholars of 1611 translated it, without any
bearing on literally stretching forth the hand in a vote.
     Some, wanting to hold to their position, will not agree, but
will continue to insist voting was carried on in 2 Cor.8:19 and
Acts 14:23.

     Back we go, first to 2 Cor.8:19. 
     
     The "chosen" one here had to do with somebody helping carry
the "gift" of material help to those less fortunate. It had
NOTHING to do with appointing, electing, or choosing a spiritual
elder/overseer in any church, or electing a person to "serve
tables," deacon - as in Acts 6. Please see such Bible
Commentaries as Barnes' Notes on the NT.
     True, the choosing of this person had to be done in some
way. Yet the way it was accomplished is not given to us.
     This is clearly a "none essential" matter of church
administration of physical things. And in such cases how it is
done and decided is left to us, it is our liberty within the law
of God as we have discussed in part one of this study. But as I
have shown above the word itself does not mean we are to
dogmatically take it in any literal sense of voting by
the stretching forth of the hand.

     Acts 14:23.  I have before proved that the contextual "they"
of this verse are the two apostles - Paul and Barnabas. For those
who unrelentingly cling to a voting here taking place, I have no
difficulty in "going along." Because the context plainly shows it
was Paul and Barnabas who would be voting or agreeing (with a
stretching forth of the hand - a hand shake, as we would do it
today) with the final authority vested in them (as we have seen
also in Acts 6) as to who would be appointed elders in the
churches under discussion.
     Let me try to make this plain with my own example. I had
been trained under the Worldwide Church of God (their programs)
back in the 60's, for the ministry/eldership. I was one of the
right hand men to two local ministers during that time. I left
that organization in 1972. By 1979 I was spiritual leader of two
congregations, one near Toronto, and the other situated in
Rochester, NY state. In 1981 I was contacted by Fred Coulter who
had left the WCG in 1979 and founded the Biblical Church of God
in California. He made (in 1982) an early summer visit to Ontario
and the two churches mentioned above, staying with my wife and I.
     He apparently went to both congregations (unknown by me)
stating to them he felt I should be ordained to the eldership. I
was told later, both congregations agreed. Then he came to me,
telling me what I've just related to you, and asking if I would
accept being ordained to the spiritual overseership in the body
of Christ. I said I would. 
     He made it quite clear to me that he would have to go back
to the elders (about 10 at the time) in the BCG organization, and
obtain their consent and final approval. If they all agreed (put
forth the hand - shook hands on it) then I would be ordained at
the Feast of Tabernacles in the fall of 1982. If they did not
agree, I would not be ordained to the ministry.
     They did agree and  I was officially appointed/ordained by
Fred and another elder in St.Louis.
     The proverb "In the multitude of counsellors there is
safety" was applied. The two local congregations were taken into
confidence by Fred concerning my ordination, yet the final and
last word on the matter came from the elders - plural.

     I believe that if Mr.Difley and Mr.Edwards had only ever
experienced true scriptural "church government" in a local
autonomous congregation with a number of spiritual
overseers/elders present, all having equal authority in essential
matters, and where the brethren were all respected as having
different gifts from the Holy Spirit, they would have no problem
with what I have stated above.
     I personally have seen this scriptural truth being practiced
in some Jamaican Church of God, Seventh Day congregations in
south Florida, with wonderful results.

     Ah, I did "hold your horses" and I did not gallop off into
the sunset.


     J.D.

     In Titus 1:5 we read.......The Greek word here used for
appoint is the verb "kathistemi" and literally means "to stand
down." ....... Some translations of the word include: "(to)
place," "set down," "set in order," "set over," "constitute,"
"make," and even "the significance of bringing to (a certain
place)." We can see that it is not as definite in meaning as
simply "ordain" or "appoint" in the English language, and does
not imply how it should be done........
     "appointed." The Greek word is "diatasso" ....... It does
not necessarily mean that the one sent to do the appointing does
the actual work, but rather that the one sent makes sure the work
is done.......
     It now becomes clear in Titus 1:5, and we can justly say,
that Paul was telling Titus that he should make certain that
elders were selected, not that Titus was necessarily to make the
selections unilaterally. Do you suppose that we may also assume
that the congregations did the actual appointing even as other
scriptures indicate? .......


     MY ANSWER:

     Concerning this Greek word "kathistemi."  How you understand
"to place" - "set down" - "set in order" - "set over" etc. with
the English words ordain or appoint is really a matter of
semantics. I have no trouble thinking "set over" is the same as
"appoint." Yes, true "setting someone over" or "appointing them
over" can be done officially in different ways.
     As shown before, there is no concrete "formula" in baptizing
someone. Certain things are mentioned in the word, but very few.
So it is with "setting over" or "appointing" elders. The word
itself does not as Mr.Difley correctly says, "imply how it should
be done."
     Clearly it was something Paul instructed Titus to do. We
have as we have seen, a few examples that prayer, fasting, laying
on of hands and some kind of commending to the Lord was done in
appointing persons to such a duty in the church. The exact
formula of "setting down" these men is obviously left up to every
congregation to "set in order." A pun on words was intended. 
     This is the liberty in Christ all elders and local
congregations have been given.

     I am not sure what J.D. is driving at concerning the word
"diatasso" for it seems irrelevant to our main topic. You may
like to read what Vine's Expository Dictionary has to say about
it, page 34. It is a strong word, and one thing is certain, Titus
was being told by Paul to fulfil this directive that is found in
verse five.
     The argument that Titus did not do the work, was not
involved in selecting the elders or had the congregations appoint
the elders, is weak and hard to justify in the light of
contextual study, not only in this chapter of Titus but also the
entire NT. 
     If by saying "not that Titus was necessarily to make the
selections unilaterally" we mean, to act as some little pompous
vain, all knowing, self-sufficient, arrogant dictatorial
demagogic elder, then as the reader should well understand from
this study, I completely agree! But if by using the word
"unilaterally" we are trying to say Titus did not have the
final authority and last word on who would be elders, if we are
saying the final authority lay in the hands of the congregations,
then I could not disagree more!
     My disagreement to this notion comes from the following
points: 1. The internal evidence of verse five itself. Crete is a
small island in the Mediterranean, churches had obviously been
established but no spiritual elders had been officially
appointed. If that had been the case, Paul would not have left
Titus there to undertake the task. He could have easily asked the
existing elders to ordain other elders. Paul also felt it
necessary to inform Titus about the basic qualifications that
elders were to have in order to be appointed as elders, also
showing this was a new undertaking and the churches on Crete
did not as yet have any elders.  2. Paul gives the qualifications
for eldership to Titus. Not one word is said to him about passing
this information on to the membership of the churches, because it
would be them and not him, who would do the electing and have
the final authority on the matter. I just cannot see something as
important as appointing spiritual overseers/elders in the
churches, being completely ignored by Paul in every letter
(especially those of Timothy and Titus - letters to other elders)
of his, IF SUCH AN APPOINTMENT AND FINAL AUTHORITY WAS TO COME
FROM THE MEMBERSHIP.
     Surely such a serious election of duty would be given some
space, somewhere in the NT, with careful instructions to the
church membership as to "what to look for" in choosing elders, if
it was they and not the existing elders who were to have the last
word. Paul gave detailed instructions on this matter to TWO
individual persons - Timothy and Titus, yet never to a
congregation. Even when instructing Timothy and Titus on the
subject, he never as much as even hints to them that they must
pass this teaching on to the membership, as it would be they, the
congregation, who would have "authority" over the ordaining of
elders.
     Let me remind you if Acts 6 rushes back into your thoughts,
and you have forgotten what I've shown on that section before.
Acts 6 was the choosing or appointing of men to "serve tables" -
physical duties only in the church. Even then the apostles/elders
had the last word for it is written, "that we may appoint over
this business."  Acts 6 had nothing to do with electing spiritual
elders.   3. If it was the churches/congregations of Crete that
were to do the "actual appointing" and not Titus, Paul could have
easily written: "For this cause I left you in Crete, that you
should set in order the things that are left undone, and tell the
churches to appoint elders in every city, as I have instructed
you." Or "......have the assemblies ordain elders in each
church....." Or ".....when the churches come together, instruct
them to elect elders for each city...." Paul had all these Greek
words at his disposal, but he did not use them!

     The internal evidence both from Titus 1:5 and its context,
the letters to Timothy and the whole NT, shows clearly that the
final authority, having the last word, on who will be appointed
as spiritual overseers and even deacons, lies in the hands of the
existing elders (perfectly elders - plural, but in the unusual
case of Crete, elder - Titus, as there were no other elders in
the churches on Crete at the time Paul was instructing him).

     What do you think of the duty of Elder, someone who is a
spiritual overseer in a church or churches? Is it "no big deal"
to you? Is it "well anyone can do it"?  How do you read the NT my
friend? If having elders in the church is really "nothing to get
excited about" to you, then why do they have to meet such high
qualifications as taught by Paul in his letters to Timothy and
Titus? Why then does James tell us. "My brethren, be not MANY
TEACHERS, knowing that we shall receive the greater
judgment"(James 3:1)? 

     The word of God powerfully proclaims that MOST should not
set themselves up in any type of official spiritual leadership
over others, for it is an awesome responsibility to do so, and
such persons will come under greater judgment from the Lord.
     
     For me to think that Titus would walk into a church on
Crete, say to the congregation, "Well now, you must elect
spiritual elders, I'm having nothing to do with it. I'm off to
another church, and will look forward to seeing your elders when
I come back" JUST BLOWS MY MIND!
     To imagine Titus going to all the churches in every city on
Crete and saying the same thing......well I just cannot think
that a dedicated understudy to Paul, would do anything remotely
as irresponsible as that!  Titus was the ONLY ELDER on Crete, and
to contemplate the idea that he would not have been personally
involved with the electing of spiritual elders - the very first
elders in the churches - is not worthy of consideration.
     Further, if it was the congregations who actually did the
appointing, THEN WHY DID PAUL NEED TO LEAVE TITUS IN CRETE?  He
wanted Titus to be with him - see chapter 3:12,13. Paul could
have said: "Titus come to me. I will write a letter for all the
churches on Crete, telling them to ordain elders, and giving them
the guidelines for the needed qualifications to such a duty." 
Or, "Titus tell the congregations to appoint elders, that's their
responsibility, but you come to me."
     Paul never said any such thing to Titus or any other elder.
Nothing remotely close to this can be found anywhere in the NT.
     
     Do you FEAR AND TREMBLE before the word of God? Do you cry
out like David did to the Lord that you might know your errors,
wrong ways, and false ideas?
     I appreciate the truths J.Difley and N.Edwards have come to
see. I understand very well the many spiritual darknesses they
were held captive to while in the WCG. Yet I fear that with their
new found freedom, they may if not very careful, jump from one
frying pan into another frying pan with as many misconceptions as
the first one.  

     Titus 1:5 is NO EVIDENCE (without reading into it, and
taking liberties with it) to support the idea that the churches
of Crete appointed their own elders APART FROM and INDEPENDENTLY
of, the authority of Titus, the only elder on the island, and the
one Paul had left there to "set in order the things left
undone (mrg.reading) and ordain elders in every city."

     As to Mr.Difley's statement "even as other scriptures
indicate" my reply is: WHAT OTHER SCRIPTURES? Please show me just
ONE NT scripture that clearly, plainly, and simply, gives the
teaching or example, that a local church congregation has the
final authority and last word, on appointing spiritual elders,
over and above any existing elders.
     
     If it was the elders of Acts 6 that had the last word and
final authority as to who would "serve tables" - who would be
official servers/deacons - serve in physical matters in the
church, then surely it would be the elders who would have the
final say and authority in appointing men to the higher spiritual
duty of church overseer. 
 

     
     Those are the major difficulties I have with John Difley's
paper called "BY WHAT AUTHORITY?"

     For the most part I am in full agreement with the rest of
his article.

     It has taken me much longer and a lot more space to answer
the above arguments than I first thought it would. But as this
topic seems to be at present, upper-most in the minds of many who
have recently left the WCG, I felt a complete and detailed answer
was justified.

     I have decided to answer some arguments as put forth by
Norman Edwards in his paper called "How Does the Eternal Govern
Through Humans?" in a yet THIRD section to this work on "CHURCH
GOVERNMENT."
        

            This second part written August 1996
      (all scripture quotations from the KJV and NKJV)

           ………………………………….. 

NEW TESTAMENT CHURCH GOVERNMENT #7— ARGUMENTS ANSWERED— PART ONE

 

Church Government

What the New Testament teaches on how churches should be governed

                                    

                                             by
                                     Keith Hunt


                                  ARGUMENTS  ANSWERED





     
     At the end of part one in this study I questioned if it
would be the last word that I would have to say concerning the
subject at hand. It was not very long after that comment that I
received two more study papers on this topic. For the individuals
who have only recently come out of the church organization known
as the Worldwide Church of God, this topic of Church Government
is very high on the study list.
     It seems thousands are just now beginning to come to the
light,  (their one time church organization had for many decades
departed from the plain truth of the New Testament) as to the
pattern of church government that Jesus and the early apostolic
church taught and practiced.

     The two new papers that have come across my desk in the last
six months (I am writing in the late summer of 1996) are by Norman
Edwards and John Difley.
     The paper by Norman Edwards is called "How Does the Eternal
Govern Through Humans?"  And the paper by John Difley is named
"By What Authority?"
     The former was written in June 1995 (first edition, which I
answer later) while the latter was published in 1996.

     Both of the above study papers (Mr.Edwards now has a new
edition to his paper, which at present, Jan.1999 I have not yet
read, due to lack of time).

     Mr.Edwards and Mr.Difley have come to see many truths
contained in the New Testament (NT forthwith). 
     I fully agree with much of what they have to say, BUT
POLITELY DISAGREE WITH THEM ON CERTAIN POINTS THEY RAISE.
     Below you will find their full words on certain points of
thought, and my reply to their argument.
     I do appreciate their study and work. In the main we have
much in common, and I am hoping that no one will construe that my
rebuttal of some of their thoughts or beliefs is an attack on
their integrity of character.

     I will start my replies to various points with the paper by
John Difley (J.D.) called By What Authority?

     J.D.

     No "Ordination Ceremonies" in the Bible

     ........Ordination, in the religious sense, comes strictly
from pagan origins and customs and is not biblical in
foundation......No place does the Bible command, espouse, or
suggest a service (ceremony) of ordination. Quite to the contrary
the biblical example is for the local congregation or fellowship
to collectively lay hands upon an individual that they have
jointly chosen and together commend that individual to God for
the appointed position......


     MY  ANSWER:

     First, let us look at the word "ordination" or more
specifically - "ordain."  Here in part is what the Reader's
Digest Family Word Finder has to say:

     "....1......confer holy orders upon, name,
invest....consecrate; appoint, commission,
delegate, deputize, elect.  2.....decree, rule,
pronounce....instruct....order,
command....legislate."

     I want you to keep in mind that this word "ordain" can also,
in our English usage, mean in certain contexts - consecrate,
appoint, delegate, commission, and elect.

     Now the World Book Dictionary in part says this about the
word "ordain."
     "....1. to establish as a law; order; fix; decide;
appoint......2. to appoint or consecrate officially as a
clergyman. 3. to appoint (a person, etc.) to a charge, duty, or
office.....Old French ordener, learned, borrowing from the Latin
ordinare, arrange (in Medieval Latin, consecrate; take holy
orders)....."

     Notice point number 3 again!  This word not only means
appoint to a duty or charge, it not only means learned, BUT IT
CAN ALSO MEAN - CONSECRATE!  I am not sure what runs through the
mind of Mr.Difley when he hears the English word "ordain"
but I suspect it may not be the same as how I understand the
word.

     For the word "consecrate" the above mentioned Dictionary
says: "....1. to set apart as sacred; make sacred or
holy......2......3. to devote (to a purpose): A doctor's
life is consecrated to curing sick people.....Syn.v.t. 1.
sanctify. 3. dedicate. See devote."

     AAAHHH! Now we have the word sanctify used in conjunction
with "consecrate."
Again, here is what the World Book Dictionary has to say about
the word sanctify:

     "......1. to make....holy......2. to set apart as sacred;
observe as holy; consecrate: And God blessed the seventh day, and
sanctified it (Genesis 2:3). 3. to make (a person) free from sin.
4. to make right......."

     Do you feel we are going in CIRCLES?   Yes, we are to a
large extent!  Can you see how the words ordain, consecrate, and
sanctify may all be chosen to say the same thing and convey the
same idea and thought to the English speaking mind?  If used in
the context of physical men under the banner of God's truth and
service, then the thought of mind is to certain people who are
called, appointed, set apart, devoted to a purpose.  And
consecrated in learned ability to be a teacher of others in word
and deed to the WAY of the Eternal God.     

     With what we see above about this word "ordain" I just
cannot fathom from a "religious sense" that it has any direct
origin with the pagans. Oh, they also may have had the custom of
electing men and setting them apart to serve in their false
worship of false gods. Does that mean God has not the right to
elect, ordain, consecrate, set apart, men to serve Him and His
children, either by calling them direct (as He did with the
apostle Paul) or through other humans (as we saw in the first part
of this study)?
     The pagans had a special one day a week to worship their
gods on (Sun-day).
Does that mean God has no right to establish the 7th day as
ordained, sanctified, set apart time, to worship Him?
     The pagans had their seasonal festivals. Does that mean God
cannot have seasonal festivals?
     The heathen had their yearly calendar. By so having, did
that mean God could not establish His yearly calendar?
     The pagans had a religious priesthood, therefore was it not
permissable for the Eternal God to have one?
     The pagans established an animal sacrificial system. Was it
wrong for the Lord to also establish such a system with ancient
Israel?

     My answer to the above is of course a resounding - NO!
     
     What the pagans DID or did NOT do, has really no bearing on
what the perfect, holy, righteous God did do,  does do,  will do…..

or will not do.

     What in the "religious sense" does the word Ordination
convey to your mind? Is it something "pagan"? Does it convey to
you something "evil" or "dirty" or "false."? Well, I guess if you
think about all the false "wolves in sheeps clothing" clergy in
the world, then it may to you be an offensive word. But if you
put it in the context of those truly called and chosen,
consecrated, set apart, appointed, elected by God. Men who serve
the spiritual needs of the sons and daughters of the
Lord........then I think the word Ordination will take on a
wonderful and inspiring meaning. A meaning that lifts the heart
to praise and thank the Eternal for having His ordained Elders to
lead and guide His called out ones - His ordained children, who
collectively constitute His ordained Church.

     Mr.Difley says Ordination is "not biblical in foundation."
Well, I will now show you where God HIMSELF commanded that there
would be a "consecration ceremony," a "setting apart" ceremony,
an "appointment to religious duty" service, an Ordination service
if you will!  It has been in your Bible for centuries.  It is in
the Old Testament, but the things of old are written for our
admonition, for our edification, for our salvation
(1Cor.10:11-12; 2 Tim.3:15-17).
     Listening to Moses and the prophets (Old Testament) is more
important than any literal physical miracle (Luke 16:31).

     With that said, let's turn to Leviticus chapter eight.  We
shall start to read from verse one.                          

                     "And the Lord spoke to Moses, saying: ' Take
Aaron and his sons with him....the anointing oil....and gather
all the congregation together at the door of the tabernacle of
meeting.' So Moses did as the Lord commanded him.....And Moses
said to the congregation, 'This is what the LORD COMMANDED TO BE
DONE' " (verses 1-5).

     Notice verse 9, more commands from God, as with verse 13,
17, 21, 29, 35, 36. The WHOLE ELABORATE process described in this
chapter was commanded by the Lord!
     Look at verse 12, "And he poured some of the anointing oil
on Aaron's head and anointed him, to CONSECRATE him" (NKJV
throughout unless otherwise stated).  The KJV of 1611 does not
use the word consecrate but the word "sanctify."
     Verse 30 in the old KJV is: "And Moses took of the anointing
oil....and sprinkled it upon Aaron....and upon his sons....and
SANCTIFIED Aaron....and his sons....with him."
     The NKJV does not use the word sanctified but the word
"consecrated."
     But the intent to the English mind is the same - these men
were SET APART, ELECTED, APPOINTED, to the duty of religious
service in a special way among the people of Israel, who formed
the "church in the wilderness"(Acts 7:38).
          All of this specific occurrence took place as the
"congregation" looked on. Read again verses two through to verse
five.  This was in a PUBLIC setting!
     Now, let me ask you: What would you call this special event?

Would you call it a "church prayer meeting"? Would you call it a
"church Bible study"?  Maybe a "church picnic" - I speak in jest.

What words come to your English mind (I am writing as an
Englishman) that convey to your understanding about what was
taking place in this chapter of Leviticus?  Do you think of the
words "church service,"  well some may? It was a "service" of a
type, as we think and use that English word concerning a
religious congregation.  Does the words "sanctification service"
or "consecration service" pop into your mind as you read this
chapter?  I am sure with many they do.
     Yet MANY English readers will think of the words "dedication
service" and/or "Ordination service."  And WHY NOT?  For the
whole context of this chapter, all the basic underlying themes of
this command from the Lord, is what the English mind thinks of as
an ORDINATION SERVICE of men to an elected, called, appointed
function of service in the work of the Eternal, toward humanity
and especially toward the people of the Church of God.
     I do not care what the pagans did or did not do in public
toward their elected priests of their religions. We are here
looking at what GOD COMMANDED!  I feel quite "at home" in calling
this public setting apart of elected men to serving in a
religious function, as an "Ordination service."
     To be frank. I am somewhat puzzled and even a little
disturbed at what presently seems like a "disdain" by some
persons (such as Mr.Difley and Mr.Edwards) for the words
"ordination" or "ordination service" or "ordination of men." 
They seem to want to put forth the teaching that this word is not
to be used in commending men, or that it is connected somehow
with evil or sin.

     John the Baptist conducted his ministry in the wilderness of
Judea. It was a public ministry. He baptized people out in the
open, crowds came to hear him and hundreds went under the water
in baptism by him (Matthew 3:1-12).
     Jesus, already a servant of the Most High, already a
spiritual elder in Israel, already learned and performing the
work of God toward the people of God. This Jesus comes to John
for baptism, not because He needed to repent of sin and be
forgiven of sins, but "to fulfil all righteousness"(verses
13-15).
     Now look what happens when Jesus comes out of the water. The
Spirit of God descends upon Him, a voice from heaven says, "This
is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased"(verses 16,17).
     Did Jesus not have the Spirit of God at this time in His
life?  No!  It is written He had the Spirit without measure from
His conception.  Was Jesus only now "well pleasing" to the
Father?  Of course not!  He had been well pleasing to the Father
from the beginning - for He was sinless.
     The truth is, this was now a SPECIAL TIME in the life of
Jesus. He was now to embark very shortly into the most important
three and one half years of His physical life. He was now too
really "zero in" on serving and dedicating His elected calling to
the children of God. What could be more fitting at this juncture
than the Father openly and publicly performing a "consecration" -
"setting apart" - public acknowledgment of service in the past
and that to come, by His Son?  
     If Aaron was given a public sanctification service of
religious duty and function, he being only a sinful man, surely
the sinless Son of the Eternal God would have no less an
ordination service?  And He did not!
     Turn to Acts chapter six. This is the well-known chapter for
the first choosing of men who would "serve tables."
     Read verses one to seven. I shall come back later to look at
this in detail when I answer another argument, but for now we see
men who met certain requirements as laid down by the apostles.
They, the "multitude of disciples"(verse 2) brought these men
before the apostles, who "when they had prayed, laid their hands
on them"(verse 6).
     This was a public ceremony,where many were witnesses to this
event. Not only the apostles (ministers, elders, spiritual
overseers) but also a "multitude of disciples."
     What if using English words would you call this ceremony? 
Some would say it was a "church service" and I guess it would
come under that  generic phrase. But most religious English born
persons would narrow it down to more specific words than just a
church service, for the context of the verses convey to the mind
a certain type of ceremony here  described.
     Many would instantly say this was a "sanctification service"
or a "consecration ceremony" or an "ordination service to
deaconship."
     There is nothing to the average English mind that smacks at
"evil" or "pagan" in the words ordination service to deaconship.
Most church goers read the first six verses of Acts chapter six,
and understand them as certain men being publicly set apart,
sanctified, consecrated, ordained, appointed, elected, to serve
and function in the duty of physical things within the church -
deacons or servers.
     These men did have to meet certain requirements, they were
elected, they had to be willing to answer that calling, and they
did go through a public ceremony where certain literal things
were performed. The most important, as the ones recorded for
us - prayer and the laying on of hands.
     We in the English language have given that whole process a
name, which immediately conveys to our mind certain specifics
that the generic phrase "church service" cannot. We have named
the process of Acts 6:1-6 as an ORDINATION SERVICE!
     And WHY ON EARTH NOT!  
     
           CONCERNING ORDINATION TO THE ELDERSHIP

     We have seen in part one of this study that God has chosen
two ways to call a man to serve in His spiritual eldership
ministry - 1. He Himself with signs, miracles, visions, angels,
or personal appearance to the man being called. There is no
record that the 12 apostles or the apostle Paul went through some
kind of ordination service by physical men. They were personally
chosen and called by the Lord Himself, and what better or greater
ordination could there be than that!  2. God uses other men to
publicly acknowledge certain individuals have been called by the
Lord to spiritual leadership and overseeing of His children. Does
the service of public consecration or ordination somehow "throw
the switch" and magically "presto" - make that man into a
"minister" from a lay person? Now that would indeed be a miracle
if it did.Of course such a literal ceremony cannot make a man
into a true minister of God. Nor can it guarantee to the end of
his life that he will not go astray or become a false minister if
he started out as a true one (see again Acts 20). 
     The ceremony of baptism by physical persons in a public
setting (most baptisms are usually performed with others around as
witnesses, though it is not a command) does not magically turn
the person being baptized into a true Christian IF the heart and
mind of the individual is not right with God. He can see the
heart, whereas men can be fooled and deceived by the outward
signs and actings and words of others. A person going through
baptism with a true heart and mind has already been living to the
best of his/her ability and knowledge the life of a Christian.
The ceremony of baptism is an outward physical sign that an
inward change of the heart and mind HAS ALREADY TAKEN PLACE.
Which has already led the person to think, to speak, to act, to
conduct themselves in a way that is pleasing to God.
     So similarly is an ordination service of men to the
spiritual eldership in the church. It is a physical act usually
in a public setting (by that I mean members of the congregation
present) to ACKNOWLEDGE that this man or men, have already been
functioning in their lives as spiritual leaders, guides and
overseers, within the body of Christ.
     The ceremony itself will not make that man into a spiritual
leader if he has not already become one. An ordination service
will not make that man into a true minister of God if he is not
already one in heart and mind.  And as the word of the Lord
clearly shows, that "setting apart" service will not, from that
moment on, guarantee that man will remain as a true spiritual
elder of God until his death. Do we stop baptizing people
because some "pull the wool over our eyes" and fool us into
thinking they have the right godly heart and mind when they do
not, or because some later leave the faith and make shipwreck
their Christian walk?  No, of course we do not!  
     Should we then stop performing ordination services because
some men have deceived us into thinking they are true spiritual
elders and overseers when they are not, or because some will turn
themselves into false minister and start "speaking perverse
things to draw away disciples after them"(Acts 20:30)?  No, of
course not!

     I am trying to see, probably looking through a glass darkly,
as to why Mr.Difley/Edwards, have such a "horror" for the word
ordination, or throw out such "end of argument" phrases as: You
cannot find the words "ordination service" in the Bible.
     Big deal. I cannot find the words "baptism service" used in
the Bible either, yet that does not mean people were not baptized
in an open public baptism ceremony, where certain things would
have been said and done in a chosen manner by those
participating. The exact specific pattern of physical action and
words spoken (what is said to the one being baptized by the
person doing the baptizing, how is the one being baptized put
under the water, backwards, frontwards, sideways, squatting,
etc.)  is not given to us, only the example and teaching that
believers are to be baptized in water and have the laying on of
hands. 
     The NT writers conveyed to our minds that people were
baptized with certain words, it got the message across to us,
which is the important thing. So they used other words and not
the words "baptism service" or "baptismal ceremony."  That
combination of words cannot be found in the Bible, so what, I say.
Does that prove anything one way or the other? Not really.
Language does change over a period of time, how we use words,
the phrases we use, the combination of words we use to express
the same image on the part of the brain that functions to
understand correctly the truth being promulgated, may change over
time, but the truth never changes. How we use words to express
that truth may change, but the truth itself never does.
     The words "second coming" are not to be found in the Bible.
Most fundamental Christians instantly know the truth of what
those words are meant to convey to the mind. They know that those
words in a nut shell, give the truth of the scriptures that Jesus
will literally, in power and glory, bodily return again to this
earth.
     The NT writers did not use that combination of words to
express this truth. Jesus is recorded to have said, "I will come
again."  We find such phrases as "the coming of the Lord" and
others in the NT, but nowhere can you find the phrase "second
coming." 
     Now is it wrong for us today to use such a phrase among
ourselves as Christians to proclaim the truth of scripture that
Christ will come back to live on this earth again as He once did
before?  No, indeed not!
     It is just a form of English to express among ourselves a
certain biblical truth.

     Our English words ordination service or ordination ceremony 
are a combination of words that speak to our mind in a certain
way, as we have come to customarily use and expect them to be
used within a certain context. The average religious English
-speaking person would immediately associate those words with the
consecration service of Aaron to Israel's high-priesthood, and
the 6 men of Acts chapter six to that of "table
servers" or as commonly called today in most churches - deacons.
     The truth that words convey to the mind is the important
thing, not the sounding of the words, not the language of the
words, not the spelling of the words, not the combination of the
words used, but the truth the words tell you!


                       A CONTRADICTION

     
     Mr.Difley says that nowhere does the Bible command or
suggest a service (ceremony) of ordination. This we have already
shown to be incorrect. But he goes on to say: "Quite to the
contrary the biblical example is for the local congregation
or fellowship to collectively lay their hands upon an individual
that they have jointly chosen and together commend that
individual to God for the appointed position."

     Now how does a group of say 100 or more persons in a
congregation lay hands on an individual "collectively" - all
simultaneously, and "together commend" him to God? How can a
group of 100 all say the same words at the same time?  Maybe I am
not understanding Mr.Difley's words correctly. But surely even in
this setting that he puts forth, any size congregation would have
to delegate this laying on of hands and "commending" to a basic
few. It would just not be literally physically possible to do
this any other way within a large congregation..

     So Mr.Difley IS SAYING that a congregation brings forth an
individual, he stands before them, hands are laid upon him, and
he is commended to the Lord some how and in some way.
     Let us suppose we are one of the members of that
congregation. We want to tell others what has taken place. What
are we going to CALL, what actual WORDS, are we going to name
this process?  Are we going to call it a "chosen one procedure"
or "elected for service program" or "called out ceremony"?  We
are going to have to give it a name, sooner or later, just from
the way things work as we speak a language to each other in
communicating. It will be given a name that will become the norm,
so everyone will immediately understand what our church did to
certain individuals.
     If this is not a "service of ordination" or putting it the
other way, if this is not an ordination service. If the Bible
does not even suggest a service or ceremony of ordination
THEN WHAT ARE WE DOING BRINGING ANYONE FORWARD IN A
CONGREGATIONAL SETTING TO LAY HANDS UPON THEM AND COMMEND THEM
TO THE LORD?
     Are we just playing with words here? We cannot have an
ordination service because the Bible supposedly does not uphold
it (which is not true) yet can have some kind of ceremony,
service, which brings individuals forth to have hands laid upon
them for service.  It still leave us having to come up with words
to describe our new "ordination service" if we cannot call it by
that name.

     Or is this whole matter really to do with some who have
experienced being in an organization that not only had totally
wrong "church government" and were even "cultic" in their
ministerial power over the rank and file membership? Elders of
their church dictatorial in words and manner, ruling with an iron
hand, having SS men reporting to them about ones who were
"rebelling" against headquarters, or "asking too many questions."

Is this whole thing about persons who have seen the total ABUSE 
and  PERVERSION  of the eldership ministry, who have experienced
the false doctrine of a "pecking order" authoritarian "do as we
say or we will disfellowship you"  cult teaching?
     Is it that these people in wanting to be free from such evil
bondage, having seen how men were elected to eldership by other
powerful, power-hungry, loyal no matter what, to the dictates of
the organization run by one human man, having seen how elders
were chosen and turned into clones of existing elders. Now seeing
this to be wrong and evil, have walked away to the other extreme
in rejecting even the words ordination service, and espouse the
other way that seems right unto men, but hidden within it lies
as much sorrow, pain, and deception, as the one they left -
namely, that it is the membership of the congregation that only
and finally decides who will be its spiritual elders.
     Many in so freeing themselves from one tyranny have not seen
the devil coming as an angel of light to catch them in another
net of falsehood and deception, so will end up in being a part of
and fulfilment of the prophetic words of Paul when he said to
Timothy: "For the time will come when they will not endure sound
doctrine; but according to their own desires, because they have
itching ears, they will heap up for themselves teachers; and they
will turn their ears away from the truth, and be turned aside to
fables" (2 Tim. 4:3,4).
     There can be as much danger (with carnality, politics,
personalities, etc.) in a whole congregation believing and
thinking they have the last word on who is to serve them in
the spiritual eldership, as the existing eldership believing they
have all dictatorial authority over everything without any
participation or consideration from the membership. Both are
extremes.  Both will lead to the camp of Satan in the long run,
just give it enough time. As Jesus said, "Wide is the gate that
leads to destruction, and many there be that go in thereat."  The
devil and the demons have cut many paths and highways for many
different types of people to ride upon, all leading to the net of
captivity and death.  Jesus told us, "Straight and narrow is the
path to eternal life and few therebe that find it."

     The key is the plumb line down the middle (Amos 7:7,8).  Get
too far to the right and you are off the mark, get too far to the
left and you are just as far off the mark. The pendulum down the
centre is where it's at - straight and narrow is the path to
life.

     J.D.

     The laying on of hands to commend one to God is very common
throughout the Old and New Testaments. Can this accurately be
called ordination? Certainly not!.......The purpose of laying on
of hands was always the same no matter what the cause, to commend
one to God. The intent was always that God would bless. Never was
the intent that man, through ceremony, could somehow make binding
decisions for God, or commit God to work through an individual
chosen by man......


     MY ANSWER:

     In the main I agree with what is stated above. Yet I believe
you could make a case that the laying on of hands for anything is
an ordination if you understand the context and the meaning of
the word WITHIN that context. We have seen that the words
consecrate, sanctify, ordain, can be used as synonyms within
certain contexts. Was a father's blessing on a particular child
with the laying on of hands a sanctifying, a setting apart, a
consecration, an ordination  for a particular purpose? Well yes
it was. To set that person apart, to appoint that individual, to
elect that person to receive that blessing given by the
father.
     Are the sick who receive anointing and laying on of hands
being consecrated, set apart, sanctified, ordained, to a special
purpose? Why, yes they are. They are being set apart, appointed,
to receive the gift of healing from the Lord.
     So again, it's how you want to think of the word ordain and
the context it's used in. It is I grant mainly used today in the
context of "church ministry." 
     Certainly the purpose of the laying on of hands was to
commend one to God.
     Please note the last sentence of J.D's. in the above
comments. Reading between the lines I feel he is hinting at a
wrong teaching proclaimed by his former church.
     I am very familiar with the teachings of the Worldwide
Church of God, being a member from 1961 to 1972 and keeping a
close watch on them since. Through various sources I could follow
their progressive "cultic" mind set from 1979 to 1986 when their
founder Herbert Armstrong died. The members were taught that HWA
was God's ONLY apostle on earth, directly under Christ Himself in
authority. He was certainly the final authority in the WCG
organization - what he said everyone else was to obey. The
membership was taught that God was fully in charge through the
ministry, all the elders were divinely appointed by the Lord, no
errors no mistakes. The people were to obey them with no
questions asked, in fact if you started to ask questions, doubted
the authority and inspiration of the eldership, questioned the
doctrines of the church, you were discarded, thrown out like a
piece of trash, and told you were cut off from the one true
church and Holy Spirit.
     The membership were told what to think, when to think, how
to think. The people were ruled with a rod of iron. Those
ordained were to be looked upon with trembling awe, as if
infallible. There was to be implicit - even blind - faith, trust,
and obedience to the ministry. HWA was for many the Elijah to
come. He would take them to a place of safety to escape the Great
Tribulation, and live to the return of Christ.
     Being ordained in the WCG during those years would
practically put you on the same level as the Eternal God Himself.
Yes, that is how fanatically wild and outrageously "cultic" THAT
ORGANIZATION BECAME!
     It is then, understandable I guess, that some who have come
through those traumatic years would possibly "cringe" and
"shudder" at the very words ordination service. To them it only
means human men were given by other human men the power
to "make binding decisions for God, or commit God to work through
an individual chosen by man." In other words, telling God what to
do, having the Lord jump to man's tune, and teaching the rest of
the lay membership that it was so.
     Such ordination services are indeed a "sham" and false
doctrine. They turn any group of persons into a fanatical cult.

     Now I ponder, that if Mr.Difley and Mr.Edwards had never
experienced such radical, extremism and bizarre teaching about
being ordained to the eldership, and on the other hand
experienced only the ordained ministry of such church
organizations as the Church of God, Seventh Day - the Seventh Day
Adventist - and even some of the large Protestant churches, then
their outlook and attitude concerning ordination would I believe
be quite different than it seems to be at present.
     Millions of people from the above churches have no problem
with ordaining individuals to the ministry or deaconship. They
may some of them, have personal difficulties with ceratin elders
and deacons at times, as they do with other members of their
congregation, but they work through those troubles in the main
and do not believe that ordinations should be cast away.

     And when it comes down to it, to the bottom line, I do not
think John Difley is against "setting apart" - "consecration" -
ordination services, for he clearly talks about persons having
hands laid upon them by a congregation and being commended to God
for the appointed position.


     J.D.

     .....Please turn to Acts 13:1-4.........In this passage
there are several very important points. First, note that God had
already appointed all those named as either prophets or
teachers......Second, for this special calling in the work, the
Holy Spirit actually made a very direct additional appointment to
service. This was most uncommon!.......The third thing to note is
that even though the Holy Spirit did the actual calling, the
local church still had the responsibility for the necessary
spiritual and physical conduct. The church sought after God's
special commendation for Saul and Barnabas through prayer,
fasting, and the laying on of hands......


     MY ANSWER:

     I have no real problems with J.D's comments till we come to
his "The third thing to note." He says the "local church still
had the responsibility......" and "The church sought after
......"
     But the word does NOT SAY that! Please read again -
carefully - verse one. When we use the word "church" our English
way of thinking about that word is the whole membership -
everyone - elders, deacons, and lay persons - all the saints.
Now, verse one says: "....there were IN the church.....certain
prophets and teachers as....." and the subject of thought goes to
naming those prophets and teachers, at least the ones who are
named, for there could have been others also. The point is, the
subject is the prophets and teachers who were IN the church, not
THE WHOLE CHURCH itself.
     The Greek word for "in" is EN. Please refer to the
Analytical Greek Lexicon or another work for its many uses. It
means besides other things "among" - "before" - "in the presence
of" - "in the sight, estimation of" - "in the case of" - "in
respect of." 
     Once more let me say, the subject of the thought of the
paragraph is NOT the church as a whole but the prophets and
teachers who were IN - PART OF - WITHIN - AMONG - the church!
Verse two says, "As THEY ministered to the Lord...." Who are "the
they"? Why the persons whose names were just given to us above in
verse one. That is the logical structure of the sentence and
thought. It was not the whole church that was ministering and
fasting to the Lord, but the prophets and teachers just
mentioned. So while they were thus doing the Holy Spirit talked
to them, in what exact way is not revealed. It was to the
prophets and teachers named that the Spirit gave instructions to
"Separate me Barnabas and Saul for the work to which I have
called them."
     Verse three: "And when THEY had fasted and prayed and laid
hands on them...." The subject has not changed, the thought from
verse one and two continues, the THEY is still the individuals
named beforehand - the prophets and teachers. 
     It should be clear, there were several leaders IN the church
at Antioch who were giving themselves "continually to prayer and
to the ministry of the word"(Acts 6:4) as well as fasting in this
case. And the Spirit revealed to THEM the work that Barnabas and
Paul(Saul) had been called to undertake. Those men further fasted
and prayed, laid hands upon the two chosen men and sent them
away.

     There is no indication or teaching here that the prophets
and teachers concerned HAD TO GO TO THE WHOLE CONGREGATION FOR
THE OKAY OR APPROVAL to send these men out on this work. They
made the decision as a group of prophets and teachers, being led
by the Holy Spirit. They had the freedom and the liberty in
Christ to so do!

     We need to get it straight. The freedom and liberty to do
the work of the Lord, as the Spirit of God leads, is VERY WIDE
and BROAD to all the people of the Lord, whoever you are in the
body, when it comes to spreading and teaching the word of truth.
     Stephen, a man ordained to "serving tables" did not think
twice about doing great wonders and miracles among the people,
and preaching the truths of God so powerfully to others including
the Jewish priests, that it cost him his life (Acts 6,7). He did
not have to obtain permission to do this from the apostles!
     When persecution arose against the church at Jerusalem and
all had to flee save but for the apostles, those who were
scattered abroad (elders, deacons, and all the saints) thought
nothing about going everywhere "preaching the word"(Acts 8:1-4).
This was personal Christian work, and no authorization was needed
from the apostles. This was everyones liberty in the Lord.
     Philip, a man called and elected to "serve tables," went to
Samaria and "preached Christ unto them." He also did miracles and
baptized those who believed (Acts 8:5-13). Yes, Peter and John
were sent to give a helping hand, but Philip did not have to get
the "starting orders" from Jerusalem or the apostles. The Spirit
led him to do a work and he just got out there and did it - true
liberty in the Lord.

     I have covered this fully already in part one of this study.
I refer you back there for the details of this particular truth.

     So the liberty for doing the work of the Lord and spreading
the gospel message extends to all the children of God in the body
of Christ, it extends to the so called "lay person" but it also
extends to the eldership of the church. 
     The prophets and teachers at Antioch did not have to obtain
permission from the whole membership to send Paul and Barnabas
out to the work, the Holy Spirit had called them to do so. And no one
got upset at what they did. Everyone knew this was their liberty.


     J.D.

     Men Choose By Inspiration of the Holy Spirit

     .......it is time to look at the positions in the church
that God expects to be filled by the choice of men.....The first
such appointments recorded for the early church are in Acts 6:1-
7.......
     Importantly we must note that nowhere in this passage are
the seven referred to as deacons or ministers (diakonos), but the
function to which they were chosen certainly is of the definition
of one who ministers or is a deacon. Of even more importance is
the fact that the very apostles seem not to have had the
necessary authority to do the choosing of the seven, since they
said to the entire congregation, "Select from among you....." 
Can we not assume that if anyone had authority to unilaterally
choose another to serve in the ministry it would have been the
apostles? Yet the apostles told the entire congregation to do the
choosing........
   

     MY ANSWER:

     I have difficulties with the comments in the last paragraph.
It is true that these seven men chosen to "serve tables" were not
called deacons or given any official title by the apostles or the
congregation of disciples. At least the record does not tell us
any official name was given to them, yet we can not be dogmatic
about that because all the details of what transpired in everyday
language after the event, among the elders and saints is not
revealed to us.
     I shall assume the seven were not given the title of deacon
for the sake of argument. 
     The English words I have circled above "serving" and "serve"
is the translation from the Greek that we render as deacon. The
basic spelling of the Greek is diakonos and as Vine's Expository
Dictionary says it "primarily denotes a 'servant' ...."  The word
servant can and does have a BROAD meaning both in Greek and
English languages, and must be understood how it is being used
within each context.
     There are a number of clear points we can derive from this
section of scripture. One is, these men were elected, chosen,
appointed to do something. Another clear point is that they were
to meet certain standards or have specific qualifications. Then
it is also plain to see they were to serve in a physical work -
serving tables - serving the widows. Lastly, the context brings
forth that these men were presented before the elders and a
ceremony, service, or whatever you want to call it, was performed
of praying and laying on of hands.
     These men were "set apart" to function as SERVERS, or as in
the Greek - deacons.
     We do not know if they were called "servers" or "table
servers" or "servers of widows" or "deacons." We do not know if
they were given at that time or after that time ANY OFFICIAL
name, but one thing is certain, they were elected to function in
a particular duty and work. Now I ask you this question: Is it
wrong to give a newly created job and those working in that duty,
a name?
     No, it is not!  Why the business world does it all the time,
the manufacturing companies do it, when offices expand and new
duties are created the department and those in it are usually
given a name. It is just good orderly practice to do so.
     The early NT church (its elders and saints) saw a need to
create a new department, to staff it with persons who had ceratin
qualification, to outline the duties (serving tables, serving
widows) and to set them apart with prayer and the laying on of
hands. They were to serve in a defined function.
     Is it wrong for us today to call that same type of function
and person - a server or DEACON?

     Let me show you something very interesting that I believe
will answer our question. Turn to the gospel of Mark and chapter
three. Please note verse 13 and 14. Jesus calls many to Him into
a mountain region, then He elects, appoints, ordains  a special
circle of twelve.
     Now go over to the gospel of Luke and find a little more
detail revealed to us about this event. Chapter six and read
verses twelve through to sixteen. Ah, ah, do you see it? 
Jesus chose, elected, twelve, and there it is in verse 13, after
His choosing of the twelve HE NAMED THEM APOSTLES!
     The word apostle means "one sent forth" - not any big deal
in the word itself, many people can be sent forth in many
different contexts and circumstances. Yet Jesus saw fit to give
these men who would function as spiritual elders in His church a
particular name or title. They were like all the other disciples
of Christ (see verse 13 again) up to this point - just one of
MANY. Then Jesus saw the need to create a new function of duty
with twelve disciples, and give it (or them) a name - apostles.
     Within the true believers of the true Church of God that
Jesus had around Him at that time, there was no use of the word
"apostles." No one was calling anyone by that name. Jesus
introduced to the church that He was head of, a new function and
a new name for that function. Nobody said: "You can not do that
because we have never had it before, Moses never gave it to us."
     Do you see what I am getting at? The Church of the Living
God has always to some extent been adapting within the law and
liberty of the working of the Lord. Jesus did not think twice
about establishing a new function and giving those called to that
function a NAME. And this was all done about 1,500 years after
the "church in the wilderness" was established by God through
Moses.
     The apostles together with the multitude of disciples did
not think it strange to establish a new function of duty within
the church, for qualified and elected persons who were set apart
with a ceremony of prayer and laying on of hands. Perhaps they at
that time did not give a name to that new function of men, BUT WE
TODAY(actually within about 100 years of Acts 6) FOLLOWING THE
EXAMPLE OF JESUS (given above) CALL THEM SERVANTS OR DEACONS!

     It is NOT WRONG for the Church of God to have persons whose
duty it is to function in an appointed and elected capacity
regarding the "serving of tables" - physical things, and to
officially name them— deacons!

     Now back to Acts 6 and other important insights.

     There was trouble brewing in the early NT church, some
widows from a certain ethnic group were being neglected during
the daily physical necessities of life, that would have needed to
have been administrated at that time, for, "the number of the
disciples was multiplied"(verse one).
     One thing in strikingly obvious from the first words of
verse two. During the murmuring among the membership as a whole,
the members did not gather themselves together apart from the
elders/apostles and say: "Well we have some big time trouble
here, let's form some committees among ourselves, figure out what
needs to be done, and then go tell the apostles what we have
decided to do about this problem."
     Please remember Acts 6 and what we are looking at, was a
LARGE serious problem. We are not talking about "How many seats
shall we set up for this day's church service." 
     On the other hand we need to remember also that we are not
talking about the doctrines of God, or spiritual matters, or
moral/immoral matters.
     We are looking at a large, important administrational
problem that would have included the correct Christian
distribution of physical goods that the widows needed for
daily living.
     Under those circumstances, the membership did not get
together and tell the apostles/elders what to do. They had enough
proper respect for the elders to let their feelings be known, to
let the elders know there was an important and large problem
brewing, and wait on the thoughts of the elders.
     Verse two shows us that up to this time in the history of
the NT church, it would seem the apostles were trying to do
everything in the administration of the spiritual and physical
duties that would be involved in a relatively new organization,
that was increasing by leaps and bounds.
     When the problem was before them, the apostles did listen,
they were approachable, they did come up with a solution. But
look, this passage plainly shows that under those serious
circumstances, it was the eldership that had the responsibility
to solve the difficulty in the church. Again, remember, we are
talking about the physical.
     The problem was of a physical nature. The apostles knew
their calling and main function of duty in life was on the
spiritual  not on doing a whole bunch of physical cares
and activities in the church, though they were important and
needed to be taken seriously also. Yet, they could see the first
priority in the lives of the eldership was prayer and the
word of God (verses 2, 4).
     Concerning this physical problem, the apostles had enough
respect for the membership (knowing the Spirit of God was in them
also) to delegate to them the responsibility of enacting the plan
that the apostles had decided upon, which would defuse the
murmuring and administer the physical goods of the church in an
appropriate way for all concerned.
     It is a true rule and law that every good leader knows the
necessity to delegate responsibilities to trusted and faithful
persons, for the betterment and smooth operation of the whole.
     You will notice from verse 3, it was also the
apostles/elders who handed down the standard of qualifications 
that the seven men whom they - the membership - were delegated to
find and elect. The membership did not come up with these
qualifications and tell the elders "this is how it will be." It
was the elders being led by the Spirit of God as spiritual
overseers of the flock, who put down the basic qualifying
requirements that the men had to have for this new function
within the NT church.
     Even in physical matters the elders are to lead the way. And
surely this should be so. Why have called, elected, elders in the
church (as the apostles were), that others are to respect  and 
look up to for an example in word and deed of true Christianity,
if they are not leading in both the spiritual and the physical.
Anything less just makes the Church of God a laughing stock to
the unconverted world. Oh, when I say the elders should lead
in the physical also, I do not mean in wealth and possessions.
The apostles were not as wealthy as some who came into the
church, that is clear from the Gospels and early chapters of
Acts.
     The whole multitude was pleased with the attitude of the
apostles, there was some team work going on here. No high handed
vanity and pomposity going on here with anyone. The congregation
did what the apostles delegated  them to do. Then did the
congregation run off when they had chosen the qualified men, to
some secret or private location and there by themselves, without
the elders, pray and lay hands upon these men? No! The word of
God says: "WHOM THEY SET BEFORE THE APOSTLES"(verse 6).
     And further we need to ask the question: In all of this who
had the final say about these chosen men?

     Was it the congregation that had final authority in saying
if this or that man was to be elected to serve in this function?
Or was the "last word" or final authority still held by the
apostles?
     Many have missed what is written in the word. You will find
it in verse 3. It is written, the apostles speaking: "......whom
WE MAY APPOINT OVER THIS BUSINESS."
     That is why after the selection had been made by the
congregation of men meeting the qualifications as laid down by
the apostles, for this physical duty, they brought and set them
before the apostles. The "last word" on the matter was still in
the hands and under the authority of the apostles. They could
have discounted any one or more of those men if evidence
warranted it.
     And WHY NOT!  Up to this time in the history of the NT
church, the apostles had been trying to do BOTH the spiritual and
the physical duties (see Acts 4:32-37; 5:1-5). They were now going
to hand over the physical aspects of the church to other persons.
As ones called to be overseers (Acts 20) of the flock of the
Lord, they had the right to lay down the qualifications those
individuals should have, delegate the election to others,
AND ALSO TO HAVE THE LAST WORD.

     Concerning the argument from verse six as to who laid hands
upon whom, was it the apostles laying hands on them, or was it
the congregation that did the honours. My answer to that is: The
subject of the sentence is the apostles, the logical thought and
sequence is concerning the apostles, bringing them to the
apostles for a reason, the reason being as verse three has
stated, ".....that we may appoint over this business." 
The final approval was done by the apostles, backed up with
prayer and the laying on of hands from them.
     If this was not the case, but final authority was in the
hands of the congregation, then there would have been no need to
have brought these men before the apostles. Someone from the
congregation could have at some other time, merely told the
apostles whom they had chosen and whom they (the multitude of
disciples) had laid hands on and prayed over.

       .   Such was not the case at all. It was all brought before the apostles to ascertain 

          what should be done and how it should be done.

          ………………………… 

     
TO BE CONTINUED