"Hour" as used in the New Testament
You may never have thought.....
THE NEW TESTAMENT'S USE OF THE WORD "HOUR" by Keith Hunt Most Christians have for decades now been taught in one way or another that the darkness that came over the city of Jerusalem during the crucifixion of Christ, started at the stroke of 12 p.m. and ended at the stroke of 3 p.m. as we count time on the clock of Big Ben in London England or some other clock in Washington, D.C. It all has something to do with the "sixth hour' and the "ninth hour" they will tell you, mentioned in the Gospels. Most Christians have been taught that Jesus died at exactly 3 p.m. as Big Ben was striking and the big hand was at 3 (if Big Ben had been built in Jerusalem and functioning). They say it has something to do with the phrase "the ninth hour" found in the Gospels. Very few have stopped to question this teaching. I was one of them UNTIL recently. One thing I had known for many years, from reading my Bible and the NT, was that the writers of the NT never used anything like "nine fifteen," or "two forty-five," or "twenty minutes after six." Such SPECIFIC time phrases just cannot be found in the NT. The word "minute" with any numerical numbers attached is also nowhere to be found in the NT. It would seem the writers of the Greek NT were not really that concerned with the "minute" technicality of when certain things happened as much as the GENERAL time they happened, if we are given even a general time frame. Of course some things mentioned in the NT are given to us as happening in a certain time frame. We do know there was a general accepted division of the daylight portion of the day. Jesus once said: "Are there not TWELVE HOURS in the day." On research in the Bible Dictionaries and the like, I discovered that it was probably the Babylonians who were the first to divide the daylight portion of the 24 hour day into 12 parts. By the time of Christ the people of Judah also had adopted this day time division. But we are never given any hint in the NT about any specifics going on at a specific minute of that hour in which the event was happening. Off I went to investigate further into this matter, and discovered some interesting points. I will quote from the OLD edition of "BIBLE MANNERS AND CUSTOMS" by James Freeman, under "The Hours of the Day": "The Jewish day was reckoned from evening to evening .... the day was divided into hours; each of these hours being one twelfth of time between sunrise and sunset. Thus the hours varied in length according to the time of the year, the summer hours being longer than those of winter .... The first hour BEGAN at sunrise, the SIXTH hours ENDED at noon, and the twelfth ENDED at sunset .... The first (hour) at it close corresponded to nearly seven o'clock A.M. of our time, and the twelfth hour to six o'clock P.M.... There also seems to have been a popular mode of reckoning the hours of the night in a similar way, as well as by watches...." Please read the above once more making sure you take particular notice of where I have given emphasis. I have NOT been able to find as to the custom of the Jews at Christ's time, when using such a phrase as "the fourth hour I went to walk the dog" IF they meant the BEGINNING of the fourth hour or if they meant the END of the fourth hour. And of course they could have meant some point of time BETWEEN the BEGINNING AND THE END. I really do not know if they used any such language of time as "I took the dog for a walk at the fourth and a half hour." You may be wondering what all this is leading to. I am going to shortly look at all the verses using hours around the events of Jesus' crucifixion, but you will probably remember some verse that says something like, "the sixth hour there was darkness over the land until the ninth hour." Now, the writer did not say, "at the stroke of the BEGINNING of the sixth hour...." or "at the stroke of the END of the sixth hour there was....." It could make about ONE HOURS difference! When the Jew said, "I was up and out walking the dog at the FIRST hour" did he mean the beginning of the hour, hence meaning 6 A.M. when Big Ben was chiming out six chimes across London town, or did he mean at the END of the sixth hour, when faithful old Ben was just about to chime out for 7 A.M. ? Start to count from 6 A. M. The first hour was from 6 to 7, the second hour was from 7 to 8; the third hour was from 8 to 9; the fourth hour from 9 to 10; the fifth hour from 10 to 11; and the SIXTH hour was from 11 to 12 p.m. If we use the BEGINNING when it is stated darkness fell over the land from the sixth hour, then it was 11 A.M. when the darkness arrived and set in. If we use the END of the sixth hour then it was 12 noon when the darkness came. But which is it? I have never found a NT Scripture to interpret whether it is the beginning or the end we are to think of as "the sixth hour." To my English mind and way of thinking as brought up in an English society, I would probably say it was the BEGINNING, but that is just human reasoning based upon my education under a certain English society. Even so, someone else from my society, may think it is the END we should reckon it as. So, if we could find in some Jewish book somewhere that such a phrase was meaning the END (hence "the sixth hour" meaning 12 p.m.) as used by some Jews, would this mean it was used by ALL Jews this way? Could it not be possible some Jews would have meant the BEGINNING? And, that still would not give us the answer as to how it was meant by the writer of the gospel who was using it to give us a general idea of the time of the day this event happen (the coming of darkness over the land). This darkness we are told lasted till the ninth hour. Going back to our counting again, depending how we count "the hour" we could end with this "ninth hour" meaning 2 p.m. or 3 p.m. Hummmm, the writers of the Gospels do not tell us any specific minute as we might so tell today, if we were reporting such an event as this very unusual darkness falling over the land in broad daylight. So, the darkness may have been from about 11 A.M. to 2 P.M. or from about 12 P.M. to 3 P.M. Many have believed Jesus died right at the stroke of 3 P.M. (as old Ben chimed out), but as we shall see in some detail shortly, not one verse in the NT says such a thing. And if we take the phrase "ninth hour" many associate with the death of Jesus, we could take it as reckoning from the BEGINNING or the END of that hour, hence either 2 P.M. or 3 P.M. Which should it be? I have no NT Scripture that interprets it as to which way to reckon the phrase. I have never found one to date. And what the Jews did or did not do does not mean it was what the writer of the Gospel had in his mind.
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