by
Keith Hunt
INTRODUCTION
This study has been written to answer Dr. Samuele Bacchiocchi
and others who hold to a Friday Crucifixion and Sunday morning
Resurrection of Christ Jesus. My aim is to help those who hold
such a view to recognize the fallacies of their interpretations
and to accept the plain teaching of God's word in the matter. My
aim is to show that even a young child can understand exactly how
long Jesus was in the grave. Although this topic could be shown
to a child (who has no pre-conceived teaching about an Easter
tradition) with just a few scriptures and a basic knowledge of
arithmetic, and he could come to understand the simple truth, I
must take the time to be somewhat lengthy because the book that
Dr. Sam (as he likes to be called) has written (called "THE TIME
OF THE CRUCIFIXION AND THE RESURRECTION) needs to be answered.
As a seventh day Sabbath keeper I do appreciate Dr. Sam's very
scholarly work presented to us in his book FROM SABBATH TO
SUNDAY. My wish is that he would use his scholastic mind to see
the errors of ELLEN G. WHITE upon whose teachings his
denomination is founded. As E.G.WHITE taught a Friday Crucifixion
and Sunday morning Resurrection, it would, I maintain be very
difficult for Dr. B. to disagree with her, as this would clearly
show he did not accept her as infallibly inspired. This would
consequently have grave repercussions within an organization in
which Dr. Sam is a paid teacher and minister. I will go through
Dr. Bacchiocchi's book chapter by chapter with my comments and
answers.
CHAPTER ONE
MAT 28:1. I and many others who hold a WEDNESDAY Crucifixion do
not agree that this verse should read "In the end of the Sabbath"
or "Late on the Sabbath," but that it should indeed be translated
"AFTER the Sabbaths....."
Mr.Ralph Woodrow in his book on this subject shows that to
understand Mat.28:1 as the women coming late on the Sabbath to
the tomb, would gives us many contradictions with other verses.
CHAPTER TWO
On page 20 Dr. Sam tries to prove that the sign Jesus gave about
Jonah is connected with the fact of Christ's Resurrection and not
the length of time in the grave. "The book of Jonah suggests
that Jonah became a sign to the Ninevites through the miraculous
way in which God raised Jonah -- out of the whale's belly .......
This experience gave compulsion to Jonah to preach and conviction
to the Ninevites to repent......." He also quotes Norval
Geldenhuy "Jonah was a sign to the Ninevites, because he appeared
there as one sent by God after having been miraculously saved
from the great fish (as it were raised from the dead) as a proof
that he was really sent by God...." (emphasis mine).
Let's take a look at the book of Jonah and see if it squares with
Dr. B's and Geldenhuy's theory.
Jonah (Ch. 1:3) is going to flee to TARSHISH. Some scholars
identify as TARTESSUS, an ancient city on the Atlantic coast of
Spain. He goes down to JOPPA, a town on the coast of Palestine
-- see your Bible maps. Jonah was hundreds of miles from the city
of Ninevah going in the opposite direction. No Ninevite would
have known what Jonah was doing or who he was!
Jonah was cast into the sea - the Mediterranean sea - a fish did
swallow him and he was cast up on to dry LAND (Ch. 1:15; 2:1-10).
This was a fish in the SEA, not a fish in a river flowing by
Ninevah. Jonah was not cast out by the city of Ninevah for all to
see. No one in Ninevah, hundreds of miles away, would have seen
this event - they had no idea that Jonah had been resurrected, so
to speak, from the dead. Now did this event alone give compulsion
to Jonah to preach? According to Chapter 3:1,2 God still had to
speak to Jonah AGAIN after this event, to get him to obey. Jonah
did travel the hundreds of miles to Ninevah (verse 3) and did
what? Did he tell them about this fishy experience he had had,
and how he was resurrected from the dead? Did he tell them this
experience to give conviction to the Ninevites to repent and as
proof that he was sent by God? If he had, some would have thought
it a pretty fishy story. NO! Jonah did WHAT? He PREACHED -
repent or perish! And the people of Ninevah BELIEVED God. They
didn't ask for any SIGN or proof he was from God, there's nothing
at all to indicate that Jonah had to tell them about his
experience inside the fish.
Now turn to LUKE 11:29-30. Jesus had been doing great miracles,
yet they would not believe Him to be the Son of God - they had
accused Him of working by the power of Satan (v. 14-15) and
others wanted some great heavenly sign. He tells them they are
evil, and no such special sign will be given - only that which
Jonah did will be given, as Jonah was to Ninevah, his sign
to them will be the sign Jesus will give to those around Him.
Jonah's sign to Ninevah was to PREACH REPENTANCE, not some fish
resurrection story. Notice it in verse 32. The people of
Ninevah REPENTED at the PREACHING of Jonah (see again Jonah
3:4,5), but Jesus' generation would not repent at His preaching
and He was much greater than Jonah. If they would not repent
when God's word was being given them, they would certainly get no
special heavenly miracle.
Now THAT is what Jesus is saying in MAT. 16:4 and LK. 11:29-32.
A HARMONY of the Gospels shows MAT. 12:40 to be a separate
incident at an earlier time than Chap. 16:4 or still another
later time of LK. 11:29. While in MAT. 16 and LK. 11 Jesus
only gave the sign of PREACHING REPENTANCE and God's WORD, He did
in MAT. 12:40 give the LENGTH of time in the grave as a sign - as
Jonah was 3 days AND 3 nights in the fish so He would be in the
tomb. It is true that in John 2:19 Jesus is referring to His
body - death and Resurrection in three days. But this is just a
statement by Jesus that even if they should kill him, He will be
resurrected, and has no legitimate connection as being the same
as MAT. 12:40. Jesus clearly states in MAT. 12:40 that it is the
length of time in the grave that is the sign He gives, while MT.
16:4 and LK. 11:29 it is the sign of preaching God's word and JN.
2:19 is the fact He will rise from the dead.
THE TESTIMONY OF THE CATACOMBS
Dr. Bacchiocchi says the frescos of the catacombs give proof that
the early Christians represented the sign of Jonah as Jesus'
Resurrection by the pictorial art of Jonah being spewed out by
the whale.
I find this very flimsy evidence for the following reasons: 1)
The writings and pictorial art of men and women OUTSIDE of the
inspired word of God - the Bible - must be taken very carefully
as they are FALLIBLE. 2) Those same early Christians were the
ones who accepted Sunday in place of the 7th day Sabbath as Dr.
B. so clearly shows in his book FROM SABBATH TO SUNDAY and must
therefore be viewed with caution. 3) Those same early Christians
are the ones who accepted the pagan EASTER to replace the
PASSOVER. 4) Certainly the resurrection of Jonah from death can
typify Christ's resurrection, and would be easily portrayable in
ART as Jonah coming forth from the fish. HOW would you
appealingly depict a length of TIME such as 3 days and 3 nights
in ART without becoming too diagramical and cumbersome. Because
the catacombs indicate that the early Christians (what kind of
Christians is another question) identified the sign of Jonah with
the event of the Resurrection, does not make it so. I have shown
that it is not. Paul does not show ANYWHERE that he
thought the sign of Jonah as given in MT. 16:4; LK 11:29 was the
ACT of Jesus' resurrection. He never once brought it up in any of
his letters that we have in the NT. Paul did preach the
RESURRECTION of Christ - yes indeed. But this fact of preaching
cannot be directly connected with the above scriptures. For Dr.
Sam to try to do so by quoting ROM. 1:4 is grasping at straws
to prove a point of interpretation of these verses that does not
stand the test of context or the book of Jonah.
Take a look at MAT. 12:40 again. In this place Jesus clearly
stated the sign of Jonah. A child can see it! Christ said AS
JONAH WAS 3 DAYS AND 3 NIGHTS IN THE FISH so He would be in the
grave or tomb. Now if Jesus wanted us to clearly understand this
sign to be His actual RESURRECTION, He could have said, "As Jonah
was resurrected from death out of the fish, so will I be
resurrected from the tomb." Or better still Jesus could have
quoted from the scroll of Jonah (Chap. 2:1,10), the part which
reads, "Then Jonah prayed unto the LORD his God out of the fish's
belly" then added, something like, "so will the Son of man come
forth from the tomb." But He did not quote this part of the book
of Jonah. Jesus referred to Jonah's LENGTH of TIME in the fish as
the sign He would give, clearly quoting from Chap. 1:17, "..
..And Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three
nights."
INCLUSIVE RECKONING
Dr. Sam says the "forty days and forty nights" of MAT. 4:2 and
"forty days" of MRK. 1:13 and LK. 4:2 do not necessarily mean a
CALENDAR 40 day period as we would normally take it to mean and
as a CHILD would understand it to mean. If so, then HOW LONG
does such expressions mean - 20 calendar days? Maybe 18 - maybe
36 or 25 or maybe 45? If we can not reckon a day as a day in the
Bible, or a night as a night, or a day and night as a day and
night, but only a part of each - then which part of each? What if
some were whole days and others only parts - which would be the
whole and which the parts, if the writer did not state? And what
if he did mean 3 or 7 or 40 calendar days but simply wrote "seven
days", and we think this means only 5 or 6 days? Surely the Bible
is not written so we could never know for sure what LENGTH of
times the writer means. Let's look at some examples, with the
understanding that a day is NOT a day, but only a part of 24
hours, only a few hours or so.
#1. Gen. 1:5 "....And the evening (night) and the morning (day)
were the first day." But not a 24 hour day as the night could be
only PART of a night and the day only PART of a day - according
to Dr. Sam's thinking.
#2. Gen. 2:2-3 "....God. .. .rested on the seventh day.... God
blessed the seventh day and sanctified it...."As a day may not be
a day of 24 hours which part of this seventh day did God rest on
and bless and sanctify? Maybe it was the first 5 or 6 hours of
the evening part, or the hours of the morning, or perhaps the
late afternoon hours are only holy. But then we see in LEV.
23:32 that the Sabbath is to be kept from one evening to the next
evening (24 hours) and EX.20:8-11 shows the 7th day is the
Sabbath and to be kept holy as it was made holy at creation. So
we see that the "seventh day" in Gen. 2:2-3 does mean a period of
24 hours.
#3 Gen. 7:4 God did not really mean "yet seven days" but
something less than seven days. He did not really mean it would
rain for 40 days and 40 nights but some length of time less than
that. Likewise verse 12. The waters did not prevail upon the
earth 150 days as verse 24 says but sometime less than that
figure.
#4 Gen. 8:6 ". . .at the END of forty days..." does not really
mean forty days, but AFTER or at the END of 38 days, or 39 days
and 4 hours, as the first day of the forty was only 2 hours and
the fortieth day was only 2 hours. Well, something similar to
this, could be thought.
#5 EX. 15:22 "...and they went three days in the wilderness.."
Not really, for the first day they only travelled for 3 hours -
the second, all day, but the third only the last 4 hours. Maybe
the first day they travelled all day and the second and third was
only for 3 hours each.
Our common usage would convey that we are saying they travelled
the distance into the wilderness that 3 days would take. We all
understand such terminology. Were they so different in Moses'
day?
#6. EX. 24:18, 34:28; MAT. 4:2 Moses and Jesus did not really
fast for 40 days and 40 nights but a length of time shorter than
that, as the first day they started may have been in the last few
hours of the day, and the fast may have been broken in the first
hour of the 40th day. Then maybe they fasted only for 20 days and
20 nights in total, as we will just pick parts of days as we
wish. After all what human could possibly fast without food and
water for a full 40 days of 24 hours a day? Human reasoning
could go anywhere with such verses.
#7. 2 COR. 11:25 Paul was not really a night and a day (24
hours) in the sea, but maybe only 4 or 5 hours, or 6 to 7 hours
etc. Could be he was shipwrecked in the last hour of the night
and pulled out of the sea within the first 3 hours of daylight,
making only a 4 hour ordeal. If so, why didn't Paul use the
Greek words for numbers and hours and tell us he was 4 hours or
10 hours or 16 hours in the sea? The Greek language did have
words to express such lengths of time - see JN. 11:9. The truth
is, Paul is telling us that he was a whole night and a whole day,
near enough as makes little difference to 24 hours in the sea
after being shipwrecked.
Now turn back to Gen. 7. By putting together verse 11 with verse
24 and chapter 8 verse 4, we can see that the months of the
calendar in Noah's day each had 30 days. From the 17th of the
second month to the 17th of the seventh month is 5 months or 150
days - exactly and literally to the day - each day being 24
hours. Note that within this section of scripture and within
this time period of 150 days, we have the expression "forty days
and forty nights" (v. 12) just that - 40 days of 24 hours each.
This being the case, which it is, there is no reason to take
Jonah's 3 days and 3 nights in the fish to mean anything other
than a full 72 hour period.
As Jesus himself plainly tells us that there is 12 hours in a day
(JN 11:9), and so of course 12 hours in a night, there is no
reason to figure anything shorter than 72 hours for the 3 days
and 3 nights in Mat. 12:40. No reason to figure any less IF you
are not trying to fit it into an Easter (Friday to Sunday morning
death and resurrection of Christ) tradition.
Unless the CONTEXT clearly and plainly shows that INCLUSIVE
counting is being used there is no reason to use such reckoning
for the seven scriptures we've looked at, or dozens upon dozens
of more like them throughout the Bible.
We are of course concerning ourselves here with the word "day" or
"night and day" as used in the Bible for length of time and not
metaphorically or prophetically as "day" is sometimes used in
both OT and NT
One verse that uses INCLUSIVE counting is found in LK 13:32. The
wording is plain and clearly shows an inclusive reckoning, "....I
do cures today, and to morrow, and the third day I shall be
perfected."
But the Bible also uses EXCLUSIVE reckoning. Notice it - Nehemiah
(5:14) was appointed to be their governor in the land of Judah,
from the twentieth year even unto the two and thirtieth year
of Artaxerxes the king, that is TWELVE YEARS...." From the 20th
year to the 32nd year is 12 years not thirteen years.
AN ABANDONED EGYPTIAN
Dr. B. cites SAM. 30:12, 13 as proving inclusive reckoning. Some
length of time SHORTER than 72 hours. But there is absolutely no
reason to give "three days and three nights" here any meaning
except their literal meaning. So we see in this passage "three
days" meaning "three days and three nights." Suppose the young
man got sick just before sunset Friday - he is found just
before sunset Monday and given food and water - three days and
three nights later. He looks up and says to David that he got
sick "three days ago." Three days before sunset Monday would be
sunset Friday. He would not say four days ago, because four days
before sunset Monday would have been sunset Thursday. Working
backward three days and three nights from sunset Monday would
bring us to sunset Friday - truly that would be "three days."
ESTHER'S VISIT TO THE KING (ESTHER 4:16; 5:1)
Suppose Esther told the Jews to start fasting for her at the last
hour before sunset Friday. The fast was to be for 3 days - night
and day. Then after three nights and three days she went to the
king - this would be the last hour just before sunset on Monday,
not Sunday morning. Still on the third day but near enough 72
hours later as makes no difference, to when they started to fast
three days earlier.
Other passages such as Gen. 42:~7, 18; 1 Kings 20:29; Chron.
10:5 are used to prove this inclusive reckoning theory. However,
none of these passages prove "three days and three nights"
means two nights and one day, or two nights and two days, or
three days and two nights. There is no reason to take any of
these passages in any sense except their literal sense, unless
one has a theory to prove and cling to.
RABBINICAL LITERATURE - JEWISH PRACTICE
The Bible is not to be understood and interpreted by Jewish
Rabbis or practices. The Bible interprets itself and is written
so a young child can understand the plain statements that are not
symbolic or prophetic. It is written so a child does not have to
wonder whether "three days and three nights" really means two
nights and one day - whether it means 72 hours or 36 hours or 32
or maybe 39 hours.
ON THE THIRD DAY
I reproduce for you here the scriptural diagram given in Dr.
Bacchiocchi's book.
MARK 8:31 (after three days) = MAT.16:31 (on the third day) =
LUKE 9:22 (on the third day)
MARK 9:31 (after three days) = MAT.17:23 (be raised third day)
MARK 10:34 (after three days) = MAT.20:19 (raised on third day) =
LUKE 18:33 (on the third day he will rise)
After this Dr. B. writes: "IDENTICAL MEANING. This comparison
clearly indicates that Matthew and Luke understand Mark's 'after
three days' as meaning 'on the third day'."
To be sure there was never any doubt in the minds of Matthew,
Luke, or Mark, as to how long Jesus was in the tomb before He was
raised - they knew!
I agree with Dr. Sam when he says the above verses have identical
meaning, because they all knew what they meant to say as to the
length of time Jesus was entombed, whether they said
"after three days" or "on the third day." An event that takes
place exactly 72 hours from a given starting point can be
correctly said to have taken place "on the third day" or "after
three days."
What all the above verses add up to (ON, IN or AFTER three days)
is precisely what Jesus Himself said in MAT. 12:40, namely that
He would be 3 days AND 3 nights -72 hours - in the tomb, just as
Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the fish.
No contradiction here - only harmony!
The expression "the third day" is very interesting. It is used
as inclusive counting by Jesus in LK 13:32, "Behold, I cast out
devils, and I do cures today and to morrow, and the third day I
shall be perfected". So the third day from Friday would be
Sunday. Yet if exclusive counting (which the Bible does use as we
have seen) is used, then the third day from Friday is Monday.
Also this expression "the third day" can, BIBLICALLY include
three days and three nights as can be seen in Genesis 1:4 -13:
"God divided the light from the darkness. And God called the
light day, and the darkness he called night. And the evening
(darkness) and the morning (light) were the FIRST DAY.....and the
evening (darkness) and the morning (light) were the SECOND
DAY.....and the evening (now three periods of night) and the
morning (now three periods of light) were the THIRD DAY..." This
provides an example of how the term "the third day" can be
counted up and shown to include three days AND three nights.
With what Jesus said in John 11:9, 10 about there being twelve
hours in a day (and so twelve hours in a night) and that He would
be three days and three nights in the tomb (MAT. 12:40) together
with one writer using the expression "AFTER three days he will
rise" while two others used "ON the third day" we can now see why
the editors of the WYCLIFFE BIBLE COMMENTARY wrote: "According
to this view, the entombment lasted a full seventy-two hours,
from sundown Wednesday to sundown Saturday. Such a view gives
more reasonable treatment to MT. 12:40. It also explains AFTER
THREE DAYS and ON THE THIRD DAY in a way that does least violence
to either " (page 984).
FIRST DAY APPEARANCE - ON THE ROAD TO EMMAUS
It is pointed out by Dr. Sam that the two men, (late on Sunday)
talking about Christ and all that had taken place, said, "....and
besides all this, it is now the THIRD DAY since this happened"
(LK. 24:21). Of course Sunday from Wednesday would be more than
three days - it would be the 4th or 5th day depending on whether
inclusive or exclusive counting is used.
In answer to this I quote from the book BABYLON MYSTERY RELIGION
by Ralph Woodrow, pages 138, 139. "....Because Jesus appeared to
the disciples on the first day of the week (verse 13), and this
was the third day since these things were done, would this not
indicate that Jesus died on Friday? This would DEPEND ON HOW WE
COUNT. If PARTS of a day are counted as a whole, Friday could be
meant. On the other hand, one day since Friday would have been
Saturday and the THIRD day since Friday would have been Monday!
This method of counting would not indicate Friday. On seeking to
offer an explanation, I submit the following: They had talked
about 'ALL these things which had happened' (verse 14) - more
than just one event. If 'these things' included the arrest, the
crucifixion, the burial and the setting of the seal and watch
over the tomb all of these things were not done until
THURSDAY.....(MAT. 27:62-66).......
'These things' were not fully completed - were not 'done' - until
the tomb was sealed and guarded. This happened, as we have
already seen, on Thursday of that week ....... Sunday, then,
would have been 'the third day since these things were done,' but
not the third day since the crucifixion" (emphasis mine).
CHRONOLOGY OF PASSION WEEKEND
Under this section Dr. Bacchiocchi tries to show that there
were NOT two Sabbaths (as we contend) during the Passion week.
He cites MAT. 28:1 as a text given to support a Passion
week containing two Sabbaths, "at the end of the Sabbaths." The
Greek for Sabbath is in the plural. "This," he writes, "is
viewed as a 'vital text'." Maybe to some it is - I do not view
it as such, but only as additional evidence to give additional
weight to the clear, easy to understand scriptures that do not
need a degree in NT Greek. By itself MAT 28:1 could not prove
that there were two Sabbaths in the Passion week, for as Harold
W. Hoehner (that Dr. B. quotes) has correctly said, "The term
Sabbath is frequently (one-third of all its NT occurrences) in
the plural form in the NT when only one day is in view.
For example, in MT. 12:1-12 both the singular and plural forms
are used (C.F. ESP. V.5)"
(Chronological Aspects of the Life of Christ pp. 69-70).
The two sections of scripture that clearly and simply show there
was indeed TWO Sabbaths during Passion week are MARK 16:1 and
LUKE 23:56. Mark recorded the women BUYING the spices AFTER the
Sabbath, while Luke recorded them PREPARING the spices (must buy
them first in order to prepare them) and then RESTING on the
Sabbath.
With this light, MAT. 28:1 and other verses do take on special
significance that cannot or should not be swept to one side.
Notice how FERRAR FENTON translates the following scriptures:
MAT. 28:1, "After the Sabbaths, towards the dawn of the day
following the Sabbaths."
LK 24:1, "But at daybreak upon the first day following the
Sabbaths...."
JN 19:20, "Now on the first day following the Sabbaths...."
So I end my replies to Dr.Sam's first and second chapters
To be continued
......................
Written in 1986
Three Days and Three Nights - Mat.12:40Dr. Samuele Bacciocchi (an SDA minister) says Jesus was not in the tomb for 72 hours. His arguments are answered
PART TWO
CHAPTER THREE
PREPARATION DAY
Dr. Bacchiocchi with some scholastical footwork tries to prove
the Greek word PARASKEUE - Preparation, is a technical
designation for FRIDAY. "Five times" he writes, "is the term
'Preparation - PARASKEUE' used in the Gospels as a technical
designation for 'Friday' (MAT. 27:62; MRK 15:42; LK 23:54; JN
19:31,42), besides the occurrence of JN 19:14". He claims the
technical terms "PARASKEUE - Preparation", and "PROSABBATON -
Sabbath-eve" are unmistakably designating what we call "Friday."
Still further, Dr. B. adds to this the Hellenistic Jews, common
Greek and Aramiac societies, the Didache writings and Tertullian,
as proof.
In answer to this, let me say first, and once more - the Bible is
not to be understood or interpreted by what Hellenistic Jews did
or did not, by the world's association of certain words with days
of the week, by the Didache (about 100 A. D.) which some use to
uphold Sunday observance, or by a fallible man such as
Tertullian. Secondly, let's look at the Greek word for
PREPARATION. It simply means - a making ready, preparation,
equipping, that which is prepared, equipment, readiness. See such
Bible Concordances as THAYER'S; STRONG'S; VINE'S. This Greek
word has NOTHING in itself to do with ANY particular day of the
week, a number, or the word "FRIDAY." It just simply means, to
prepare, make ready. There are some "scholars" and Bible
Handbooks (quoted by the Church of God,Denver) that shows Jews
used this word for any day prior to a Sabbath (weekly and
annually).
Here are the six places in the NT where this word appears as
given in the INTERLINEAR GREEK-ENGLISH NEW TESTAMENT. MT. 27:62,
"Now on the morrow, which is after the preparation..." MAR.
15:42, "...since it was preparation, that is before sabbath.."
LK 23:54, "And it was preparation day, and Sabbath was coming
on." JN 19:14, "And it was preparation of the passover..."
Verse 31, "....that might not remain on the cross the bodies on
the Sabbath, because preparation it was ...." Verse 42, "... on
account of the preparation of the Jews...."
None of these verses say it was the preparation before the 7th
day weekly Sabbath. There were SEVEN annual Sabbaths or Feast
Sabbaths also observed by the Jews - the day before them the
people also prepared or made ready for its observance. Notice
how LUKE not to confuse with Mark, the account of the women
buying and preparing the spices, tells us that after doing so
they rested on the SABBATH DAY according to the commandment (LK
23:56). Mark wrote "And being past the sabbath, Mary .... bought
aromatics. . . . " (Chap. 16:1). There had to be TWO Sabbath days
- one on Thursday, after which the women bought spices and
prepared them (this was called by Mark "the sabbath" as it was,
but an annual Sabbath, the 15th of Nisan) and then as Luke wrote,
they rested on the Sabbath according to the Commandment - fourth
of the ten in EX. 20. The two writers wrote in such a way that
when put together, knowing the facts about the Festival of
Unleavened Bread, and how the 15th of the first month is a
Sabbath and can fall during the week, both wrote correctly. One
concerning the annual Sabbath as a bench mark, the other the
weekly Sabbath as a bench mark.
How easy - a child can understand!
John was inspired to further help us not to think that this
preparation was for the weekly Sabbath by saying "And it was
preparation of the PASSOVER...." (JN 19:14).
This is not to be understood as Geldenhuys explains, quoted by
Dr. B., as the Friday that falls during Passover week. But it
was the day many Jews got ready on, prepared themselves and
their homes to partake of the PASSOVER meal, on the evening of
the 15th of Nisan, just as they do to this very day. Jesus ate
the Passover the evening of the 14th (MT. 26:2, 18-30), was
arrested and beaten that night - crucified during the day of the
14th, when many Jews were preparing to YET EAT the PASSOVER meal.
See JN 18:28. That meal was held by many on the 15th - an annual
Sabbath, the first day of the Unleavened Bread feast, in accord
with the teaching and practice of the Pharisees sect. John
further shows that the 15th of Nisan, the Sabbath coming was
somehow different than the regular weekly sabbath by designating
it "an high day" (JN 19:31).
Concerning this idea put forth by Geldenhuys and others (of which
Dr. Sam B. is part) that JN 19:14 is Friday of Passover week, the
writer in the l.S.B.E. under "Preparation" says this:
"This method of harmonizing seems to the present writer to be
forced, and it therefore seems wiser to give to the words of JN
19:14 their natural interpretation, and to maintain that,
according to the author of the Fourth Gospel, the Passover had
not been celebrated at the time of the crucifixion...." (emphasis
mine).
It had not been celebrated by those who followed the Pharisees
sect. Jesus and his followers done already observed "the
Passover" at the beginning of the 14th day, as it was originally
instituted in Exodus 12. That truth I have expounded fully in
over a dozen studies.
Thirdly. Because the word PREPARATION - PARASKEUE, becomes
associated with the 6th day of the week, more than say the day
before the Passover (as it only happens once a year whereas the
day before the weekly Sabbaths comes 52 times a year) does that
mean the word has changed its meaning, that it now means Friday
or 6th day and no longer to make ready, or preparation ? Does
the popular association of this word with the day before the
weekly Sabbath mean that it can no longer be used in any other
setting or before any other day of rest or Sabbath? This is what
Dr. B. would want us to believe it seems. Most people associate
the word "restday" with Sunday. The words themselves do not mean
"first day" or "Sunday" but through common and frequent weekly
use they have come to be thought of as Sunday, for that is when
most people rest. Now is it wrong or improper to use this word
"restday" when meaning THANKSGIVING DAY (as it is a rest for most
of us)?
Of course not!
Despite what some "Greek language authorities" so called, say or
claim to the contrary, the Gospel writers did use the Greek
PARASKEUE - preparation, in describing the day before
the 15th of Nisan Sabbath, which did not fall on the weekly
Sabbath in Passion week, but on a THURSDAY, creating two Sabbaths
that week. So making it possible for the women to BUY spices
AFTER a Sabbath, prepare them on that Friday, and then rest
according to the fourth commandment Sabbath, as Mark and Luke
clearly tell us. All this making it possible for Jesus to be in
the tomb 3 days and 3 nights - a full 72 hours, from just after
sunset Wednesday to shortly after sunset Saturday (this truth of
"after sunset" is added here, as further in-depth study in 1998
on the word "evening" and the Greek tenses in certain verses
in the gospels showed to be the correct understanding).
Oh, the simple truth of God's word - so simple a child can find
it. I am reminded of my young childhood (about 8-10 years old) in
Sunday school, when after finding and believing ACT 1:11,
I said "Jesus is going to literally - bodily return to this
earth" and caused shocked looks from adults. You see my Church of
those days did not preach or believe in the literal second
coming of Christ. But, I knew it was so from that day on - it was
so plain, so simple - I had no preconceived ideas, just saw an
easy to understand verse and believed it.
Matthew 12:40 with JN 1:9 is just as easy to read and believe.
It may not square with the ideas, theories and teachings of the
majority of a so called Christianity, but most of that popular
religion practice and believe things that cannot be found in the
Bible. Some are so filled with traditions of men and preconceived
beliefs or the scholastic philosophies from theological schools,
that it is practically impossible for them to acquire the simple
belief of a child. It was no different in Jesus' day, that's why
He said, "I thank you Father, that you have hid these things from
the wise and prudent and have revealed them unto babes."
A CEREMONIAL SABBATH
Dr. Sam states the annual feast days are never designated simply
as "sabbaton" as is used in the Passion narratives of the
Gospels, so the Sabbaths of Passion week cannot be any annual
Sabbaths. Concerning this Greek word "sabbaton" Vine's Expository
Dictionary of NT Words says this: "SABBATON or SABBATA: the
latter, the plural form, was transliterated from the
Aramaic word, which was mistaken for a plural; hence the
singular, SABBATON, was formed from it. The root means to cease,
desist (Heb., SHABATH; cp. ARAB., SABATA, to intercept,
interrupt); the double 'b' has an intensive force...." (p. 983).
In LEV. 23:3 this plural word SABBATA is used where the singular
SABBATON is meant, as the 7th day only is spoken about. Lev. 23
verses 26-32 are talking about the annual FAST-REST of the feast
day of ATONEMENT, the last part of this verse is rendered into
English as, "..... from evening to evening ye shall keep your
sabbaths. " (THE SEPTUAGINT VERSION: GREEK AND ENGLISH - Sir
Lancelot Brenton - Zondervan publishing). The Greek for
"sabbaths" is SABBATA. If the plural form is here correct, then
ALL the rest days upon which no servile work is to be done in
this chapter are called by the one Greek word SABBATA. If it
should be the singular SABBATON then we see that the 10th day of
the 7th month - the ceremonial (as some call it) Sabbath of
Atonement is called SABBATON! Either way, it is quite correct to
use the Greek word SABBATON for both the weekly Sabbath or
the annual Sabbaths - they are all days of rest upon which no
servile work is to be done - to cease or desist from such work,
which is termed SABBATON in NT Greek, and which word is not
intrinsically connected with only the seventh day of the week.
The word is translated "week" many times in the NT., i.e. MT
28:1; MRK 16:2,9; LK 18:12; 24:1; JN 20:1,19; ACTS 20:7; 1 COR.
16:2. The word SABBATON is the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew
SHABBATH which is the intense form of SHABATH, which in turn is a
root, meaning REPOSE, desist, cease.
The OT was written in Hebrew NOT Greek. Let's take a look at the
word SABBATH/S.
The most common one used is SHABBATH, number 7676 in STRONG'S
CON. which is the intensive form of SHABATH (#7673 in STRONG'S)
which as previously stated is a primary root, meaning CEASE,
desist, rest. Also used a few times in the OT is SHABBATHON
(#7677 in Strong's) which is from #7676 - a Sabbatism. All three
are basically the same when applied to a day on which no servile
work is to be done.
The word SHABBATH is used in EX. 20:10 with reference to the 7th
day of the week. This same word is used in LEV. 23:32 with
reference to the annual day of ATONEMENT Sabbath, "from even,
unto even shall ye celebrate your SABBATH". Here is what the
THEOLOGICAL WORDBOOK OF THE OT says about the word SHABBATON: "In
addition to designating the Sabbath (EX 16:23), this word may
apply to the day of atonement (LEV. 16:31; 23:32); to the feast
of trumpets (LEV. 23:24); and the first and eighth days of
tabernacles (LEV. 23:39). The ending - ON is characteristic of
abstract nouns in Hebrew...." (Vol.2, p.903).
The Hebrew for "the sabbath of rest" in EX 35:2 and EX 31:15 is
SHABBATH SHABBATHON.
Here the weekly seventh day is being mentioned. In LEV. 16:3,1
the annual feast day of ATONEMENT is called in Hebrew SHABBATH
SHABBATHON Again in LEV. 23:3 the weekly Sabbath is called
SHABBATH SHABBATHON and so is the day of ATONEMENT (verse 32).
The Hebrew in the last part of verse 32 for "shall ye celebrate
your sabbath" is SHABATH SHABBATH.
We can see how the Hebrew is applied to BOTH the weekly Sabbath
and the annual Sabbaths. I refer you to the ENGLISHMAN'S HEBREW
AND CHALDEE CON. of the OT, pages 1234, 1235. All of God's REST
days (weekly or annually) are SHABBATH - SHABATH days. All of
God's days upon which no servile work is to be done are
SHABBATHON (Sabbath observance) days. God's weekly Sabbath and
God's seven annual Sabbaths are all SHABATA (Hebrew) Sabaton
(Greek) days - days upon which we CEASE or REST from our regular
secular work.
In Ezekiel 20, God is telling us how He chose Israel - brought
them out of Egypt, and told them to cast away their abominations
and keep His statutes. God tells us He gave them "my SABBATHS"
(v. 12,13,16,20,21,24). The Hebrew is SHABBATH while the Greek is
SABBATA (Sabbaton. When God brought Israel out of Egypt did He
only give them the seventh day of the week Sabbath? Oh, NO! He
gave them His FESTIVALS with their seven annual REST - cease to
work (SHABATH, Hebrew - SABATON, Greek) days, see EX. 12:15-16;
23:14-17; 16:22-30; Deut. 16:16; LEV. 23.
When Israel rebelled in the wilderness against God's statutes and
judgments - when they greatly polluted His Sabbaths (Greek -
SABBATA), did they only pollute the seventh day weekly Sabbath
while keeping the annual Sabbaths? I think NOT! They polluted all
the rest days God gave them to cease servile work on. All the
rest days God gave Israel in the wilderness are classified under
"my SABBATHS" in Ezekiel 20. The one word SHABBATH (Hebrew)
SABBATON or SABBATA (Greek) is used for both the weekly and
annual Sabbaths.
It would be difficult for someone like Dr. Bacchiocchi or the
Adventist organization which he is part, who do not observe the
seven annual REST days of God, to understand or appreciate
the use of the Hebrew word SHABBATH or the Greek word SABBATON
with a rest day other than the weekly Sabbath, as the 7th day of
the week is the only day they associate the word SABBATON with.
(This was written before Dr. Sam came to see the truth of
observing the Festivals of God as listed in Lev.23. I am very
pleased he now observed those wonderful festivals). This was not
the case with the true Christians of the first century A. D.
or the writers of the Gospels. Neither was it the case with most
Gentiles of that time who were quite familiar with the fact that
the Jews had other SABBATON days other than the seventh day of
the week. It is certainly not the case with those of us today who
keep all of God's holy rest days.
If the 15th of Nisan (first annual Sabbath day of the feast of
Unleavened Bread) should fall on a Thursday one year, and I was
to meet one of my fellow church brothers on the following
Friday, I may say to him (if we were together) on the Wednesday
of that week something like, "Well John, I'll meet you at city
hall after the Sabbath at 11. He would completely understand
that I was meaning the Sabbath of the 15th of Nisan -Thursday
that year. I would not have to say to him, "Well John, I'll meet
you... .after the first Sabbath of the feast of Unleavened
Bread." I may say to my wife on the Monday of that week, "Honey,
I'd better get my suit in to the cleaners today so I can get it
dry cleaned and back by Wednesday, before the Sabbath comes."
She knows I'm speaking about the 15th of Nisan Holy day. I do not
have to say to her, "Honey I'd better get my suit to the cleaners
today so I can get it back before the first Holy rest day of the
Unleavened Bread feast comes."
It may be the afternoon of the 14th of Nisan - the Wednesday in
our explanations I've been using. I may have a plumbing problem
at home that I'm busy repairing - a church brother calls on the
phone and in part of the conversation I may say something like,
"I'm rushing to get this plumbing back together again before the
Sabbath starts." He knows I mean the 15th of Nisan Sabbath - I do
not have to say "....before the first Sabbath of the Unleavened
Bread feast" or "before the holy rest day of Nisan 15th."
Those of us who keep God's festivals know that the day before the
14th of Nisan (the Passover) and the day before each annual
Sabbath is "PREPARATION" day. We may very well use this word when
talking to each other before and coming up to any one of God's
seven annual holy days.
Even close relatives who are not part of our faith but know what
we practise, may say to another relative not familiar with the
days we keep, "Oh, it may not be the best to visit sister
today, as she will be very busy - she uses this day as a
preparation day for the feast of Trumpets that she and her family
observe tomorrow."
We who observe the festivals of Lev. 23 and others who do not,
but are close friends or relatives familiar with our practices,
know that the words SABBATH AND PREPARATION are not intrinsically
tied to just the seventh day and sixth day of the week. It was no
different for the Jews, early Christians and many Gentiles of the
first century A. D.
HIGH DAY ?
Dr. B. points out by referring to Israel Abrahams, a noted Jewish
scholar that there is no instance before JN 19:31 of the use of
the term 'high day' or 'Great Sabbath' in Rabbinical
literature. In doing this he also destroys any argument he may
have for believing this phrase means a "special weekly Sabbath,"
(as he claims it does because he believes the 15th annual
Sabbath and the weekly Sabbath fell together in the year Jesus
died) because what can be shown by later Rabbinic use and
literature of the term "Great Sabbath" or "high day" can
have no bearing on the way John used it. And further, terms such
as "Good Friday" or "Holy Saturday" coined by the Roman Catholic
church much later than John, can also bear no proof in supporting
the belief that "an high day" in JN 19:31 means special weekly
Sabbath, special because the 15th of Nisan Sabbath is believed to
have fallen upon the weekly Sabbath.
Exactly what John had in mind by calling the Sabbath that was
coming a "GREAT DAY" or "High Day" we may have to wait until the
resurrection to ask him. But here is one thought.
As most of the Jews and their religious leaders did not eat the
Passover meal until the evening of the 15th (as the Jews do to
this day) as shown in JN 18:28, the start of the first annual
Sabbath of the feast of Unleavened Bread, it may be that John was
merely saying that the coming Sabbath was great because the
Jewish society had fused the Passover meal and annual Sabbath
into one, whereby making that particular Sabbath "great" in their
eyes.
Since the first writing of this reply to Dr. Sam in 1986 (now
editing in 1998), the Church of God, 7th Day, out of Denver have
discovered some interesting and enlightening facts.
Quoting from their booklet on the subject: ".......In
JN.19:31......The NIV renders the tow Greek words 'megale hemera'
as 'special.' The KJV and many other translations render
'megale hemera' as 'high day.' The Greek words 'megale hemera'
literally means 'great day.' ....... there is Biblical evidence
to support the argument that the reference to this sabbath as a
'great day' (megale hemera) is a reference to a
festival.....sabbath..... In the Septuagint version
of the Old Testament (Greek translation of the OT - Keith Hunt)
Isaiah 1:13 uses the phrase 'great day' to refer to the festival
sabbaths. The latter part of verse 13 says, '....I cannot bear
your evil assemblies.' In the Hebrew text, the word from which
'assemblies' is translated is 'atsarah' which means 'solemn
assembly.' ....... In the Greek version of Isaiah 1:13, the word
'atsarah' is translated is translated as 'hemeran megalen' which
means 'great day.' Thus the Greek text of Isaiah 1:13 uses the
same reference for an annual Jewish festival sabbath as does John
in John .....19:31. The meaning assigned to 'assembly' ('solemn
assembly' in Isaiah 1:13) is recognized as a reference in general
to the festival sabbaths of Israel. Strong's Exhaustive
Concordance of the Bible indicates Isaiah's reference to
'atsarah' is a reference to any festival or holiday, and not to
the Passover Sabbath alone."
The context of Isaiah 1:13 and the very verse itself would prove
Strong's Con. to be correct. This Greek phrase 'megale hemera'
includes ANY special day - any Sabbath of God (weekly and annual)
as well as New Month day. God is telling Judah (and He is
speaking to Judah in Isaiah chapter one, see verse one) that when
they call any "great day" (megale hemera) to meet upon, He cannot
bear with them for they continue to do evil, there is no
repentance and no real desire to do His will, notice verses
15-20.
To be perfectly honest with the Scriptures, this Greek phrase we
are looking at, can refer to the weekly Sabbath as well. The
context of Isaiah 1:13 includes the weekly Sabbath also.
The Church of God (7th Day), Denver, do not understand the truth
of John 7:37, where this Greek 'megale hemera' is again used.
They think verse 37 refers to the 8th day coming after the seven
day Feast of Tabernacles, and so believe once again that this
Greek phrase is used only for annual Sabbaths. But the truth is
that John 7:37 is concerning the last or 7th day of the Feast of
tabernacles, which had become a special day with the Jews, in how
they observed it with certain rituals and ceremonies concerning
the use of "water." Hence Jesus taking the opportunity to talk
about the true fountain of living water. All this is fully
explained in another study I have called "The Truth about John
7:37."
So, the Jews used this Greek phrase 'megale hemera' for ANY
special day, whether a Sabbath or not (the 7th day or last day of
the feast of Tabernacles is not a Sabbath day as Lev. 23
shows).
It may also be true that this phrase used by John was simply
borrowed from Isaiah 1:13 and was not in common use among the
Rabbis of his time. It may be peculiar to John. To John the
Sabbath coming the day following the death of Jesus was a "great
day." By itself it cannot prove this was used only for an annual
Sabbath, or for a day when an annual and weekly Sabbath came
together on the same day.
John's use of "an high - great day" cannot prove by itself that
an annual Sabbath is meant, then on the other hand it cannot
prove it was a special weekly Sabbath either, as this phrase
is not found in Rabbinical literature before JN 19:31.
The only way to understand what Sabbath was coming as Jesus was
put into the tomb, and what "preparation" day for the Passover it
was, and how the women could buy spices AFTER the Sabbath,
prepare them and then rest on the Sabbath according to the fourth
commandment, is by believing Jesus meant what He said and said
what He meant in MAT 12:40 in that He would be 3 days AND 3
nights in the tomb, and that there was then TWO Sabbaths in that
Passover week, one on a Thursday (the 15th of Nisan Sabbath, the
first day of the feast of Unleavened Bread) and then the weekly
Sabbath on the following Saturday.
We shall study more later about the two Sabbaths of Passover
week.
PREPARATION OF THE PASSOVER
I do not teach that the Greek "Preparation of the Passover" is
used as a technical designation for the day before the Passover.
As I've stated before, it is merely a Greek word that means -
make ready, prepare, equip, and has no intrinsic connection with
FRIDAY or any specific day. The day before any weekly or annual
Sabbath or the day before the 14th of Nisan, was "preparation" as
it is in Jewish homes and those who keep God's festivals today.
This word PARASKEUE is used only 6 times in the NT (MT. 27:62;
MRK. 15:42; LK 23:54; JN.19:14,31,42). Because people do not
believe Jesus knew how many hours there was in a day (which he
did - JN 11:9) and because they do not believe Jesus meant 3 days
and 3 nights (72 hours) but two nights one day and part of a
second day, in Mat. 12:40. Because they do not believe Jonah was
3 days and 3 nights in the fish but some length of time less than
that.
Because they will not see the Sabbath following the preparation
in the above cited verses, was not automatically meaning the
weekly Sabbath at all. Because they will not see that there
were TWO Sabbath days during Passion week.
Because of all this, they assume the Sabbath after "preparation -
PARASKEUE" is SATURDAY and that PARASKEUE used as the preparation
day before MUST BE "Friday".
Do you see the CIRCLE of their reasoning? PARASKEUE used in these
six places must mean Friday as the Saturday Sabbath was coming,
and as the Sabbath following PARASKEUE was Saturday then
PARASKEUE - preparation, must mean "Friday" at all times. This
circle of reasoning, based on false assumptions based on a false
pagan festival of EASTER (that was adopted by the Roman Catholic
church in place of the PASSOVER) based on the false assumption
that Jesus rose Sunday morning (there is not ONE verse that says
Christ's resurrection took place on the morning of the first day)
has led some to write, "The fact must be faced that no example of
the use of PARASKEUE is cited for any day other than Friday,"
(Leon Morris, THE GOSPEL ACCORDING TO JOHN). Now I do not see
the word "Friday" in the NT at all - so the burden of proof rests
with Leon Morris and others like him to prove to me that the
Sabbath following PARASKEUE was Saturday and that PARASKEUE is
equivalent to the word "Friday" at all times. With my child-like
belief in what Jesus said in MAT. 12:40 with JN 11:9 Leon Morris,
Dr. Sam, and other so called "scholars" will never prove it, for
it is not provable.
Again let me repeat, you do not need a degree in Greek or Church
History to understand the plain teachings of God's word. You do
need to read ALL of the scriptures on a particular topic, let the
Bible interpret itself and have a little child's belief.
UNDISPUTED TRADITION
Dr. Bacchiocchi writes "....Christian tradition has unanimously
held to the Friday - Crucifixion/Sunday - Resurrection
chronology." I answer to this, that so called Christian
tradition has, since about 150 A. D. held to an EASTER tradition
in place of the PASSOVER celebration. Christian tradition has
held from about the same time or earlier, to a Sunday
observance in place of the Sabbath. This same traditional
Christianity has held from about the 4th century, to a December
25th birthday of Christ. There are other long held customs and
beliefs of traditional Christianity that are just as unfounded
Biblically as those mentioned above. If traditional Christianity
can be so wrong on the above, it certainly can also be on
the length of time Jesus was in the tomb. Dr. B. acknowledges
that some early Christian writers did place the Last Supper on
TUESDAY evening and not Thursday evening, but then goes on to say
regarding the Crucifixion "no early Christian writer ever
disputed or doubted its occurrence on Friday." What does Dr. Sam
think those early Christian writers were doing that placed the
Last Supper on Tuesday evening? Does he think they were teaching
Jesus partook of the Passover meal on Tuesday evening but was not
put on the cross until Friday?
Does he think they were teaching that the events recorded in the
Gospels from the Passover meal to Jesus being put on the stake
lasted from Tuesday evening to Friday morning? Surely it should
be obvious to any logical thinking person that a writer claiming
Jesus partook of the Last Supper on Tuesday evening is at the
same time claiming Jesus was not crucified on a Friday but on a
Wednesday.
As to Dr. Sam's statement, "The absence of any early Christian
polemic regarding the day of Christ's Crucifixion and
Resurrection, offers, in our view, an overwhelming proof of the
trustworthiness of the traditional chronology of the Crucifixion
and Resurrection," I will repeat that those early Christian
writers who maintained Jesus ate the Last Supper on Tuesday
evening, were putting forth the argument that Jesus was NOT
crucified on a Friday. Even those early Christian writers who
adapted Sunday as the Lord's Day in place of the seventh
day Sabbath, did not emphasis Christ's resurrection on Sunday as
number one proof for the change of day, (see Dr. Bacchiocchi's
book FROM SABBATH TO SUNDAY, pp. 270-273).
I submit that the belief that Jesus had risen Sunday morning had
not yet cemented itself in Christianity at large, and that there
were many who still knew in those early days, that Jesus
ate the Passover meal on Tuesday evening and was hence crucified
on Wednesday and resurrected 3 days and 3 nights later.
You can find early writings in defense of Sunday observance but
where do you find early writings to counter this and uphold
Sabbath keeping and answer the claims (one being the
Resurrection of Jesus on Sunday) being put forth by Sunday
observing theologians, outside of the Bible. There is just a
little here and there to show that God's people continued to keep
the Passover and not Easter, and that Jesus ate the Passover on
Tuesday evening. But in the main, the extra Biblical writings of
God's true servants in response to "those who taught Sunday and
Easter observance, and the idea that Jesus was crucified on a
Friday and resurrected on a Sunday morning" was diabolically
destroyed by a religious force that claimed to be Christian
but was in reality the power and working of the Adversary - Satan
the Devil, that God says has deceived the whole world (Rev. 12:9)
and made the inhabitants of the world spiritually drunk on her
spiritual fornications and lies (Rev. 17: 1-5).
It is the pagan Easter observers and their theory of a Sunday
morning Resurrection (there's not one single verse that says
Jesus rose on the MORNING of the first day of the week in the NT)
that is based on human fantasy, who teach Christ died on a Friday
(Dr. Sam is one exception, not being an Easter observer) and not
those of us who believe what Jesus clearly said in MAT. 12:40.
CHAPTER FOUR - THE DAY OF THE RESURRECTION
LATE OR AFTER?
I completely (and have always so, believed and taught) agree with
Dr. Sam's study and conclusion of how MAT. 28:1 should read. I
can do no more than quote him, ".......in the light of the above
considerations on the language and context of Matthew 28:1, we
conclude that this passage offers no support whatsoever to the
view of a late Sabbath afternoon....... visit of the woman to the
sepulchre. The indications submitted have amply established that
the plain sense of MAT. 28:1 is: "After the Sabbath, as dawn on
the first day of the week......" (NIV).
The internal evidence of the other Gospel writers, the very
context of the verses that follow MAT. 28:1, and the fact that
there is no hint whatsoever anywhere in the NT that the women
came to the tomb TWICE (once late on the Sabbath, and again early
on Sunday morning), leaves know doubt that the Greek word under
dispute in MAT.28:1 should be understood and translated as
"After" and not as "Late on." I refer the reader on this
particular point of out topic to both Dr.Sam's book and to the
book on the same subject (The 3 days and 3 nights) by Ralph
Woodrow. While I disagree with their overall teaching about 3
days and 3 nights, they are quite correct on this one point. The
Church of God(7th Day), Denver, are very incorrect here in their
stand that MAT. 28:1 should read, "Late on the Sabbath...."
I will take the time to quote from the booklet by Woodrow:
"......MAT. 28:1: In the end of the Sabbath.......The context
mentions a great earthquake, an angel descending from heaven,
rolls back the stone from the tomb, and announces that Jesus
has risen from the dead! The women quickly go to tell the
disciples the glad news, and then actually see the risen Christ
......all of these things, took place 'in the end of the
Sabbath,' we are told, so not on Sunday morning at all! .......
So, 'in the end of the sabbath.' or 'late on the sabbath' (as
some translate it), was when the resurrection took place. One
writer....... states:
The women came to the tomb 'late on the sabbath.' The stone was
rolled away 'late on the sabbath.' The tomb was empty 'late on
the sabbath.' The angel said Jesus had risen, 'late on
the sabbath.' Since all these things happened 'late on the
sabbath,' he reasons, 'Is it not the silliest kind of nonsense to
say that the resurrection took place on Sunday morning?'
.......
If it was late on the sabbath when the women discovered the stone
was rolled away, why would they be asking the next morning: 'Who
shall roll us away the stone from the door of
the sepulchre/' (MARK 16:2,3).
If it was late on the sabbath that the women found the tomb
empty, why would they be taking spices to anoint the dead body
the next morning, knowing it was not there? (LK. 24:1).
If it was late on the sabbath that the angel told the two Marys
to 'go quickly, and tell His disciples that He is risen' (MAT.
28:7), why would the disciples be so unconcerned that they
calmly waited until morning before going to check it out? The
fact is, they 'ran' to the tomb as soon as they heard the report!
(JOHN 20:4).
If it was late on the sabbath that Mary Magdalene visited the
tomb, found it empty, and actually saw and worshipped the
resurrected Christ, why would she be weeping the next
morning at the tomb and asking the supposed gardener where the
body had been placed? (JN. 20:1,11,15).
If it was late on the sabbath that the women discovered the empty
tomb, why do the other accounts link it with dawn, and why does
even Matthew 28:1 say it was 'as it began to dawn'? Dawn is when
the sun is coming up, not when it is going down! ........."
Very logical questions as we look at all the accounts of the four
Gospels. There is no way around it, the only conclusion is that
MAT. 28:1 should not be taken as "late on the sabbath" but "after
the sabbath" or "ending the sabbath, as it began to dawn
towards......" Matthew is telling us the same as the other three
Gospel writers, that the Sabbath ENDING, after it was over, and
as it was BEGINNING to DAWN TOWARDS the first of the week (there
is only one dawn in any 24 hour day), as John was inspired to
write "while it was yet DARK" (more darkness than light yet the
sun was on its way up, maybe a red yellow skyline where the sun
would come up), the ladies came FOR THE FIRST AND ONLY TIME to
the tomb to anoint the body of Christ, with the spices they had
BOUGHT after the Sabbath (and prepared them after that 15th of
Nisan Sabbath), then rested on the Sabbath according to the
commandment (7th day Sabbath). Being excited to do this anointing
work they left their homes very early the night of the first day,
coming to the tomb while it was still yet dark, wondering who
would roll away the stone from the entrance. It was already
rolled away. An angel was already there to tell them Christ was
not there for He had already risen from the dead, as He
said He would.
TWO SABBATHS OR NOT?
I must comment on how Dr. Sam tries to synthesize MRK. 16:1 with
LK. 23:56. He outrules the women buying the spices on Saturday
night, but, he says, "....... the women could easily have gone
out to purchase spices early Sunday morning....... " and he
further surmises and theorizes, ".......according to Luke the
women had already started to prepare 'spices and ointments' on
Friday afternoon (LK. 23:56). Thus, it is possible that the women
went out very early Sunday morning to buy only those missing
ingredients and then they went back home to finish the mixing,
before hastening to the tomb. According to Mark, 'they went to
the tomb when the sun had risen' (MRK. 16:2) ......." (emphasis
mine).
I must give Dr. B. credit for trying and coming up with an
ingenious theory - most of his colleagues will just ignore MRK.
16:1 and LK. 23:56. But that is all I can give him credit for
- an imaginative theory.
First, we are to believe the women FORGOT some ingredients on
Friday when buying the spices. There were THREE women doing this
buying (MRK. 16:1; LK. 23:55-56) at least, and we are to believe
they all still forgot some of the things they would need.
Secondly, we are to believe the stores were open very early
Sunday morning (none of these women had any of the forgotten
ingredients at home with them or any friend to borrow them
from it seems) so these women could buy the forgotten items,
return and finish preparing the spices and get to the tomb " as
it began to dawn towards the first of the week " (MT. 28:1)
and "when it was yet dark " (JN 20:1).
Thirdly, we understand Mark's statement "when the sun had risen"
by the question, "how much had it risen" which is answered by
Matthew and John in that it was BEGINNING to dawn TOWARDS the day
but was still "yet dark" There was still more darkness than light
when they ARRIVED at the tomb. Have you ever arose early in the
morning when the sun was still down over the horizon but light
was beginning to break forth, yet it was still more dark than
light? I have. This was the time of day or night (whichever way
you want to look at it) that the woman arrived at the tomb - it
is only by putting Matthew's and John's account with Mark's that
a clear picture is formed. To quote only Mark is nice for those
who would like 3 or 4 hours after sun rise, so the women could
get to the store, buy the items they had all forgotten on Friday,
return and finish preparing them, and still get to the tomb
during the morning of the first day to see the resurrection of
Christ.
But the plain Biblical fact is NONE of those who went to the tomb
that early morning SAW Jesus being resurrected - when they got
there Jesus was already gone - the stone was already rolled away
and Christ was not there. THERE IS NOT ONE VERSE IN THE NT THAT
SAYS JESUS WAS RESURRECTED ON SUNDAY MORNING! You try to find it.
Yet those who speak of Christ being resurrected on a Sunday teach
it as if it is a Biblical FACT, although they cannot show one
verse that says He was. And still they want to say that those
of us who believe Jesus to have been in the grave for three days
and three nights as He said He would be, base our belief "on
human fantasy and not on a Biblical fact." At least I can
give you the reader, the fact of MAT. 12:40 to back up by belief
Jesus was crucified on a Wednesday, where can they give me a
verse that says Jesus was resurrected on Sunday morning? The
gospel writers tell of several different visits made by the
disciples to the tomb on that first day of the week. In EVERY
instance, they found the tomb EMPTY! An angel said, "He is not
here: for he is risen, as he said" (MAT. 28:6). The angel did not
say "He has just a few minutes ago risen" or "He rose an hour
after sun up this morning" or "He was resurrected earlier this
morning on the first day of the week."
The first day of the week was WHEN the disciples DISCOVERED that
he was risen, but nowhere does the Bible actually say this was
the time of the resurrection.
The only verse which seems to teach a Sunday morning resurrection
is MRK 16:9, "Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of
the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene....... " But this
verse does not say that early on the first day Jesus was "rising"
or that he "did rise" at that time. It says that when the first
day of the week came, he "WAS RISEN" - past perfect tense in the
Greek. An action having taken place in the past but continuing in
the present.
Since there were no punctuation marks in the Greek manuscripts
from which our NT is translated, the phrase "early the first day
of the week" could just as correctly be linked with the time
Jesus appeared to Mary. By simply placing the comma after the
word risen , this verse would read: "Now when Jesus was risen,
early the first day of the week he appeared first to Mary
Magdalene." The following verses show Mark is recording some of
the APPEARANCES of Jesus and not explaining on which day Jesus
was resurrected.
The Greek is very revealing in LUKE 23:54,56. The definate
article "the" DOES NOT appear in verse 54. It reads in the Greek,
"And day it was preparation and Sabbath was coming on" (Berry
Interlinear).
Verse 56 reads, "And having returned they prepared aromatics, and
the Sabbath remained quiet, according to the commandment" (Berry
Interlinear). The definate article "the" is in the Greek in verse
56.
A small but somewhat meaningfull point. One Sabbath (the 15th of
the first month - first day of the Unleavened Bread feast) is
just "Sabbath" but when they rested according to the commandment
Sabbath it is "the Sabbath" or "the Sabbath according to the
commandment" - the fourth commandment of the big ten - the 7th
day weekly Sabbath.
A little more proof the writers of the Gospels knew there were
TWO Sabbaths during the Passover week when Jesus was put to
death.
And in passing (will say more later on this point) the Greek word
for "was coming on" in verse 54 is in the IMPERFECT tense. The
Sabbath HAD come and was continuing.
It is time for all people who call themselves after Jesus Christ
to, "earnestly contend for the faith which was once delivered
unto the saints" (Jude 3). Those who have the greater knowledge
of God's word and are in positions of leadership need to STAND
STRONG and LEAD in example and teaching.
I call on Dr. Samuele Bacchiocchi to KEEP and observe the 14th of
Nisan PASSOVER as the early first century true Christians did. I
call upon him to observe the FESTIVALS of God as the early
Christians did. I call upon him to strongly stand up and
denounce the pagan festivals that his denomination is practicing.
I call upon him to acknowledge the errors of E.G. White and to
shout out loud and clear to the leaders and members of the
Seventh Day Adventist Church that it is IDOLATRY to base their
religion on the so call "inspired" writings of ELLEN WHITE. Yes,
it may cost Dr. Sam his job he may find himself "put out"
of the Adventist organization. But then he'll be "put into" the
true body of Christ.
Since all the above was written (back in 1986) it is a pleasure
to state that Dr. Sam has indeed accepted the truth that the
Festivals of God (as outlined in Lev.23) should be observed. He
is busy promoting them, and for that courageous stand I praise
the Lord. He does not hold E.G. White as infallible, and he does
denounce the false pagan festivals such as Xmas and Easter.
TO BE CONTINUED
.....................
Written in 1986
Three Days and Three Nights - Mat.12:40Dr. Samuele Bacciocchi (an SDA minister) says Jesus was not in the tomb for 72 hours. His arguments are answered
Part Three
OTHER ARGUMENTS ANSWERED
Over the past 25 years I have encountered a number of arguments
trying to uphold a Friday Crucifixion and Sunday morning
Resurrection. Probably the Seventh Day Adventist organization has
written more articles and booklets than any other Christian group
to defend this popular tradition. I maintain that they have done
so in order to uphold their teaching that ELLEN WHITE was an
infallible Prophetess - to prove her wrong on one point (there
are many other things she wrote that are contrary to Scripture
besides the Friday Crucifixion/Sunday Resurrection) would smash
the Adventists theological foundation.
DECOMPOSITION THEORY
Dr. Samuele Bacchiocchi has perhaps presented us with some of the
most scholastic arguments in parts of his book, that I have seen
to date. But his Adventistism did shine through loud and clear,
in the last half of his thesis, and especially in concluding with
a quote from Ellen White. A colleague of Dr. B. by the name of
Harry Lowe wrote on the same subject back in 1970. He found
another problem with believing Jesus to have been 3 days and 3
nights in the tomb - he wrote, "To keep an unembalmed body for
over seventy-two hours, from Wednesday afternoon until after
Saturday night, was not possible in a climate where decomposition
would have set in before that."
My answer to this argument is:
1) Jesus was embalmed - see JN 19:38-40.
"ALOES....... a substance which dissolved in water and added to
myrrh, was used by the ancients in their highly perfected art of
embalming (JN 19:38-40)." Pictorial Bible Dic. p.661.
2) The coldness of a hillside tomb (much like a cave) even in a
hot climate as Palestine, has a preservation quality to it to
some degree.
3) Jesus had lost all His blood through the scourging He
underwent and having a spear thrust in His side (JN 19:33,34),
hence He would not decompose as quickly as Lazarus was doing
after being dead for four days (JN 11:17). About a hundred pounds
of myrrh and aloes was used on Jesus (JN 19:39).
4) Besides all these physical facts, we have the sure promise
and miracle power of God the Father that, "neither wilt Thou
suffer Thine Holy One to see corruption" (PS. 16:10). Jesus
was foreordained to be resurrected and not to decompose at any
time before that event.
RESURRECTION WHEN THE WOMEN ARRIVED THEORY
Some have claimed that the rolling back of the stone (more like a
"boulder") over the entrance to the tomb, was so the women could
witness the Resurrection and Jesus could come out.
My answer:
1) Jesus did not need the entrance opened as He could after His
resurrection PASS THROUGH physical matter - see JN. 20:18-20.
2) The stone was rolled away so the women and disciples could
enter the tomb and see that Jesus was NOT THERE - see MRK.
16:1-4; LK. 24:1-12; JN. 20:1-10.
3) The disciples on entering and seeing the angels were told
Jesus HAD RISEN (LK. 24:6; MRK. 16:6; MT. 28:6 - AORIST tense,
i.e. "has risen") already. The "aorist" is single action
done in the past.
INCLUSIVE COUNTING (LK.13:32,33)
You can use PORTIONS of the day rather than 24 hrs. You can use
the day you are speaking on as a full day, the morrow would be
the 2nd day, part of the next day would be the 3rd day. This can
prove INCLUSIVE counting and less than 72 hrs.
This may be true within a certain CONTEXT as Luke 13:32,33. I
have said that the Bible does use INclusive counting AT TIMES!
But, I have also proved the Bible uses EXclusive counting also at
times.
The phrase "the third day" is used in Gen.1:13 to add up to 72
hours as shown by reading verses 3 - 13. John 11:9 shows us: 12
hours in a day, obviously meaning the daylight portion of a 24
hour day, hence also 12 hours in the night portion of a whole 24
hours day.
MATTHEW 12:40 is VERY SPECIFIC! Jesus was being very specific.
At other times He just said He would rise the "third day" or
"after three days" or "in three days" but here in Matthew 12:40
He nailed it down to specifics. He said He would be in the heart
of the earth(the tomb) for three days AND three night - for 72
hours!
THE WAVE SHEAF ON THE 1st DAY - LEV. 23:9-11
As Jesus was typified by the sheaf of the firstfruits and as this
sheaf was waved on the morning of the first day then it is
argued, Jesus rose on the morning of the first day.
My answer:
1. The passage in Lev. says nothing about WHEN the wave sheaf was
cut. The instruction there has to do with WHAT must be done with
the wave sheaf, before WHOM and WHEN.
Jesus fulfilled this symbolism when He presented Himself before
the Lord (Father) of heaven on the first day (John 20:1-18). This
wave sheaf represented the RISEN Christ and the work He had to do
on the first day before the Father, NOT when He rose.
2. There is some evidence from Jewish historical writings to show
that the wave sheaf was cut on the evening that we call Saturday
evening. The evening after sunset on Saturday.
Actually the Pharisees we know from history cut the "wave sheaf"
just after the Sabbath of the 15th of the first month, just after
the first day of the feast of Unleavened Bread had ended, and
waved it before the Lord the morning of the 16th day. The
Sadducees, who were the official Temple priests during the time
Christ lived, DISAGREED with the Pharisees over this matter of
WHEN to cut and wave the firstfruit sheaf before the Lord. They
waved it during the morning of the first day of the week that
usually fell during the Unleavened Bread feast.
The CUTTING of the firstfruit sheaf is probably what typified the
time of Christ's RESURRECTION, and it was from what we can gather
from Jewish history, cut just shortly AFTER the Sabbath. It was
NEVER cut ON the Sabbath!
THE THIRD DAY SINCE ALL THESE THINGS WERE DONE - LUKE 24:21
It is argued that the third day from Wednesday could not be a
Sunday, but the third day from Friday would be a Sunday.
My answer:
The third day from Friday would be a Sunday IF and only if Luke
was using inclusive reckoning. If Luke was using exclusive
counting then MONDAY and not Sunday would be the third day from
Friday.
The men talked about "all these things which had happened" (verse
14). All these things would include the making sure the
disciples could not roll away the stone and steal the body
of Jesus. This was made impossible by the sealing of the tomb and
placing guards at the entrance for three days (see Mat.27:62-66).
This being done as we believe on a THURSDAY,
Jesus' death and burial was now as far as these chief priests and
Pharisees were concerned - sealed tight and sure. And the
disciples probably thought it was all over as well. As they
would talk about all these things that were done to their Lord,
to cut them off from His life and body, it would have to include
the sealing and guarding the tomb on the Thursday. The third day
from when all these things were done on a Thursday is a SUNDAY!!
THREE "DAYS" (FIRST) AND THREE NIGHTS THEORY
As day is given first before night it is argued Jesus did not
fulfill this saying of His in a literal sense, because the night
came first as He was buried just before sunset.
My answer:
To answer this please note Gen.1:3-5. God puts the name of light
first and the name of night second. Darkness was already on the
earth, but nevertheless as a speach pattern God says He
"called the light Day, and the darkness He called Night."
Jesus said, "are there not twelve hours in a day" but because He
did not mention the night in relation to hours, did not mean it
had less hours than the day time part of a full day. By His
mentioning the day (or light) part before the night part did not
mean that a day had less than two egual parts of 12 hours each,
nor did it mean that we should start the day at sunrise -
counting the first hour of the day at sunrise. FOR when God in
Gen.1:5 was instructing us on when to start counting the hours of
the day He said, "the evening and the morning were the first
day."
On keeping the Sabbath God says, "from even unto even shall you
celebrate your Sabbath"(Lev.23:32).
The phrase "three days and three nights" is a figure of speach
that conveys a length of time ONLY. It is not designed by Bible
writers to tell you to count the hours of a day from sunrise, but
ONLY to give you a length of time - length of hours. It is a
FIGURE of speech as far as which comes first, the word day or the
word night. It is not a figure of speech as to the specific
LENGTH of time the phrase is meant to convey to the mind.
It is said that Jonah was "three days and three nights" in the
belly of the great fish. But we are not told WHEN Jonah was cast
into the sea. He was fast asleep when the storm came and they
had to awake him. Could this have been at night when the storm
hit? Maybe and maybe not - we are not told, nor does it matter.
The point the writer wants you to get is not WHEN - at what time
of day or night Jonah was cast into the sea and swallowed by the
fish, but HOW LONG he was in the fish's belly - three days and
three nights . Whether Jonah was swallowed at sunset, sunrise,
10 a.m. or 3 p.m. is immaterial to the massage that the writer
wants you to understand. The length of time is what he wants you
to get - 72 hours in Jonah's case. He is not concerned with his
use of such a phrase for you to understand WHEN to start counting
the first hour of a 24 hour day. That is not his point or
teaching he is trying to convey to you. His teaching is length of
time irregardless as to when that time begins.
In Jonah's case he was "three days and three nights" - 72 hours -
in the fish's belly from the time he was swallowed. In Jesus'
case He was "three days and three nights" in the grave from
the time He was put into the tomb.
We do not know when Jonah was swallowed by the great fish - the
Bible does not tell us. But we do know from the Scriptures of the
NT that Jesus died between 3 and 4 p.m.(the third hour, which
last for....yes, an hour) and placed into the tomb shortly AFTER
sunset (see my later comments proving Jesus was not placed in the
tomb before sunset as many believe).
And three days and three nights later He was resurrected from the
dead to immortality and glory.
When Paul was shipwrecked at some time he said he was, "a night
and a day" in the deep (2 Cor.11:25). He mentions night first
and day second, for what reason? To tell us he entered the sea at
the beginning of the night or sunset ? Maybe, but not
necessarily. If Paul had wanted us to know the very hour he was
cast into the sea he could have easily used such language as,
"the sixth hour" - "the tenth hour" - or " the second hour of
the third watch" etc. It was not the hour that he was cast into
the sea that Paul was concerned with his readers knowing , as to
the length of time - the number of hours that he suffered
floating about in the sea. And in this case Paul chose to use the
phrase "a night and a day" as opposed to "a day and a night" to
express to the readers that he was 24 hours adrift in the sea.
As there are 12 hours to the daylight part of a day and 12 hours
to a night part of a day, what does it matter if one says "day
and night" or "night and day" - both convey the same message
in length of time.
We today have phrases that are slightly different but mean the
same thing! We may say "it's two forty-five" or we may say "it's
fifteen till three" or even "it's quarter to three." Some
people always use the first type of expression while other always
the second, and still others the third way of saying the same
thing. Then some use both ways to relate the time to others
- interchanging the expressions. I am of the later - I may say,
"it's two forty-five" to one person and say, "it's fifteen till
three" to the next person who asks me the time.
The expressions "three days, night and day" (Esther 4:16) and
"three days and three nights" (Jonah 1:17; Mat.12:40) are
different expressions that both add up to 72 hours. They
are expressions to convey length of time NOT start of time.
JESUS AS JONAH - MAT.12:40
Taking the expression "three days and three nights" as literal we
have this argument:
Jonah was an Israelite who preached to the people of Israel. He
was swallowed by the fish for three days and three nights, after
which he was resurrected to life again outside the belly of
the fish to go and preach to the Gentiles in the city of Nineveh.
Likewise Jesus was an Israelite who preached to the Jews of
Israel. He stopped His preaching to Israel on Thursday
of Passion week, was put to death on Friday and resurrected
Sunday morning. The reasoning continues like this. As Jonah did
not preach for three days and three nights and then continued his
preaching to Gentiles, so Jesus did not preach from Thursday to
Sunday - three days and three nights - then continued to preach
to Gentiles.
My answer:
This argument for explaining the "three days and three nights" of
Mat.12:40 is made invalid for the following reasons:
1. Although Jonah was an Israelite there is absolutely NOTHING in
the book of Jonah to show that he ever preached ONE WORD to the
peoples of Israel. Jonah was called to go and preach to the
Gentile people of the city of Nineveh - to no other people but
those dwelling in the town of Nineveh!!
2. Jesus preached to Israelites and some Gentiles before His
death. After His resurrection we see Him appearing to His
disciples - talking to them - preaching to them - but there is
not one word about Him preaching or talking to any Gentile.
3. Not only can we not find any word about Jesus preaching to
Gentiles after His resur- rection, but the disciples themselves
did not preach the Gospel to the Gentiles until a number
of years after the New Testament Church was started. This can be
seen by reading Acts chapter one to chapter eleven, verse
nineteen.
WHEN WAS JESUS PLACED IN THE TOMB?
The Bible is the most wonderful book ever written. One of its
many wonders is that you can take all your life time reading and
studying its pages, and still you will not have found all its
various little truths hidden here and there. It is of course THE
WORD of the Eternal God of the universe. That word tells us to
study, to prove all things, to love the truth, to hunger and
thirst after righteousness, to grow in knowledge, to be willing
to be humble and to be willing to to corrected. All this is a
life long process, to the very day we fall asleep in death.
Often, we come across more truth somewhat accidentlyin a sense,
and the sense I mean is that we may be studying a certain subject
and find a truth we were not expecting or looking for. I have
experienced that a number of times over my 55 years of life to
date (editing this study in 1998).
The most recent time to experience this blessing was this past
year of 1998. I was doing a full and indepth study on how the NT
uses the word "evening." I had never undertaken such a study
before, not so complete from the NT. I was looking up every place
in the NT where the word "evening" was used and letting the
Scriptures interpret themsleves as to how it it used by that
section of the Bible. It was a rewarding study indeed. I have
that study in my PC and can send it to anyone who requests via
e-mail.
Briefly, the study shows a four way use of this word. 1) Evening
= sunset. 2) Evening = period of time from after 6 p.m. or as
the NT puts it, from the 12th hour on. 3) Evening = a time
after sunset on into an amount of time (not specified in any
specific way) covered by darkness. 4) Evening, can be part of
the day that preceeds it.
As I was studying this topic concerning "evening" I was also
studying the last 24 hours of the life and death of Jesus. I
came across a verse that hit me like a ton of bricks. Actually
two of the Gospel writers bring it out (Matthew and Mark). In
Matthew the verse is 57 of chapter 27.
In Mark we find it in chapter 15 verse 42.
These two men tell us very plainly that Joseph of Arimathaea did
not come to Pilate UNTIL EVENING! Putting aside all ideas of men
or traditions of men and societies and only using the NT to
interpret the use of the word "evening" for us, Joseph did not
come to Pilate until at least 6 p.m. As the Passover was in the
Spring of the year (our late March or April), sunset in
Jerusalem, Palestine, at that time would also be around 6 p.m.
When we understand that the word "even" or "evening" can be
connected with the previous daylight portion of the day just
preceeding that evening, we can understand why Mark says it was
preparation before Sabbath (chapter 15 verse 42).
When we understand that no Gospel writer tells us the exact time,
down to the minute, when Jesus died, and that from what is given
it was sometime between 3 p.m. and 4 p.m.
When we understand that although the Jewish leaders wanted the
three men dead before the Sabbath came, they certainly had no
intentions to remove and bury Jesus themsleves.
When we understand that those Jewish leaders would have been too
busy with the utter confusion that would have errupted in the
Temple when the curtain that devided off the "most holy place"
was split assunder, to worry about who would take down the body
and this Christ and bury it.
When we understand that none of the physical brothers and sisters
of Christ (half brothers and sisters that is) came to take care
of the body of Jesus.
When we see and understand that not even one of the twelve
disciples came to take down the body of their leader.
When we understand that everyone close to Christ was thinking
that someone else but themsleves was surely looking after the job
of taking Jesus down from the cross and burying Him somewhere.
When we understand all this, then we can see why it took a few
hours from Christ's death for Joseph to finally realize NOBODY
was going to remove Jesus and bury Him. And by the time he
realized this it was "even." The sun had set. He made a fast move
to Pilate and begged for the body of Christ.
How long would it have taken to then go and take Christ down from
the stake, use the 100 pounds or so of aloes that Nicodemus
brought (as John tells us), wrap the body and take it to
the tomb? We know the tomb was close at hand, as that is told
us. All of this probably would have taken at least an hour and a
half, if not two hours.
It is now dark, oh, yes, maybe still could be classified as
"evening" by the way the NT uses the word. Maybe could use the
word "even" as belonging to the previous day, as the Bible
does use that concept from time to time (as I show in my study
article on the word "evening"), yet, as used in the Bible, and in
the NT, it is now the evening of the Sabbath, it is now the
beginning of the Sabbath of the 15th day of the first month - the
first day and first Sabbath of the feast of Unleavened Bread.
Jesus was put in the tomb at the beginning, during the first few
hours of the Sabbath of the 15th day of Nisan. The women (a few
of them) we are told watched as Joseph and Nicodemus performed
all this and they saw where they laid Him. A job had to be done,
this was an ox in the ditch situation, no matter the work
involved, and the Sabbath having come, the task of putting Jesus
to rest in the tomb in the correct Jewish manner had to be
completed.
Now, there is one verse left to explain. On the surface it would
be thought that this verse would clealy demolish all I have said
above. But, to the contrary, when we understand the Greek tense
used for the critical words in this verse, it becomes another
huge proof to what I have stated. The verse is Luke 23:54.
It would seem to say (according to the KJV) that the Sabbath
"drew on" - was yet to arrive, and Joseph had already laid Jesus
in the tomb.
Someone whose native tongue was Greek, would have had little
trouble understanding what Luke REALLY said. The word "drew on"
as in the KJV, is in the Greek, in the IMPERFECT tense, not the
FUTURE tense, but the IMPERFECT tense. What does the imperfect
tense signify?
The book "Essentials of New Testament Greek" by Ray Summers,
lesson 13, pages 55,56 has this to say:
".......The imperfect tense indicates CONTINUOUS action in PAST
time. Contrast 'I am loosing' (present) with 'I was loosing'
(imperfect) and the significance is clear......Always it
represents CONTINUOUS action in PAST time.......The 'repeated' or
'iterative' imperfect shows action repeated in past time. It
would be represented by a broken line (- - - - - ) rather than a
continous line (______) which would represent the descriptive
imperfect......."
Ah, now we can understand what Luke really was saying in chapter
23:54. Talking about all the things Joseph and Nicodemus had
done and finished, including the placing of Christ in the
tomb, the Sabbath HAD COME in the past, at a past point of time
and did continue. It was a kind of period of time that could be
understood as belonging to the previous day, hence still
preparation for the Sabbath (especially under the ox in the ditch
situation), yet was also the time that belonged to the Sabbath,
hence the Sabbath HAD come and was continuing by the time Jesus
was placed in the tomb.
It may sound a little odd and a little contradictory, but when we
look at how the word "evening" was used in the NT and when we see
the truth of the specific Greek tense that Luke chose (under
inspiration) in verse 54, we are left with no other conclusion
but to realize the NT Scriptures tell us that Jesus was not
placed in the tomb until AFTER the "evening" had come, and AFTER
the Sabbath had already arrived.
Three days and three nights later from a few hours into the
evening of the annual Sabbath of the 15th of Nisan, a Wednesday
evening, brings us to a few hours after the weekly Sabbath,
or Saturday evening, for the RESURRECTION of Christ ! Close to
when the Wave Sheaf was cut as the Sadducees (priests of the
Temple) taught and observed (the first of the firstfruits), ready
to be presented to the Lord the next morning, a Sunday morning.
So the whole typology of the Passover lamb and Wave sheaf was
completely fulfilled in Christ, even to the typology of Jonah
being three days and three nights in in the whales belly, was
fulfilled by Jesus being three days and three nights in the tomb.
END NOTES
Perhaps the number one reason that has been put forth over the
centuries, for keeping Sunday as the Sabbath, has been the
teaching that Jesus was resurrected the morning of the first day
of the week. This teaching is not only unscriptural but contrary
to a number of Historical sorces.
The Didascalia, an early Christian work which is preserved in
Syriac, supports a Wednesday crucifiction day. In this work the
apostles are quoted as saying that it was on Tuesday evening that
they ate the Passover with Jesus, and on Wednesday that He was
taken captive and held in custody in the house of Caiaphas.
Epiphanius, a post-Nicene writer, gives Tuesday evening as the
Last Supper (A.Gilmore, "Date and Signiticance of the Last
Supper," Scottish Journal of Theology, Sept. 1961, pp. 256-259,
264 - 268).
Victorinus of Pettau, worked out a chronology that arrives at the
conclusion that Jesus was arrested on a Wednesday. Loc.cit.
There is a certain amount of evidence found in the writings of
the Early Church Fathers for the Last Supper having taken place
on the 13th of Nisan, i.e., Tuesday evening. Loc.cit.
The Dead Sea Scrolls. Writing in "Eternity" magazine, its
editor, Donald Grey Barnhouse cited evidence from the scrolls
which would place the Last Supper on Tuesday. He also quoted from
a Roman Catholic journal published in France that "an ancient
Christian tradition, attested to by the Didascalia Apostolorum as
well as by Epiphanius and Victorinus of Pettau (died 304 A. D.)
gives Tuesday evening as the date of the Last Supper and
prescribes a fast for Wednesday to commemorate the capture of
Christ" (Eternity, June, 1958).
Though strongly holding to a Friday crucifixion, The Catholic
Encyclopedia says that not all scholars have believed this way.
Epiphanius, Lactantius, Wescott, Cassiodorus and Gregory of Tours
are mentioned as rejecting Friday as the day of the crucificxion
(Vol.8, p. 378, art. "Jesus Christ.").
The Companion Bible, published by Oxford University Press, in its
Appendix 156 explains that Christ was crucified on Wednesday.
Dake's Annotated Reference Bible. Finis Dake has said on his
note on Matthew 12:40: "Christ was dead for three full days and
for three full nights. He was put in the grave Wednesday just
before sunset and was resurrected at the end of Saturday at
sunset.... No statement says that He was buried Friday at sunset.
This would make him in the grave only one day and one night,
proving his own words untrue" (p 13).
The error in believing Jesus was crucified on a Friday has
largely come about by thinking that the Sabbath that followed
"the preparation" of Mt.27:62 and Jn. 19:31 was the weekly
7th day Sabbath instead of the first Passover Sabbath.
The Wycliffe Bible Commentary says, " The day after the
preparation (ASV). Usually explained as Saturday...... However,
this preparation day was the day before the Passover Feast
day (John 19:14,31), which feast may have occurred that year on
Wednesday night. Perhaps this accounts for Matthew's not using
the term 'Sabbath' here, lest it be confused with Saturday.
According to this view, the entombment lasted a full seventy-two
hours, from sundown Wednesday to sundown Saturday. Such a view
gives more reasonable treatment to Mt.12:40. It also explains
'after three days' and 'on the third day' in a way that does
least violence to either" (page 984).
The answer is all resolved when it is understood that there were
TWO SABBATHS in the last week of our Savior's physical life.
Ferrar Fenton (a wealthy Englishman, for about 50 years avoided
reading the BibIe in any but the original languages, that his own
translation of the Bible might not be influenced by other
translations), renders the first part of Mt.28:1 as, " After the
SabbathS.." He states in his foot note that the Greek original is
in the PLURAL.
Fenton translates Lk.24:1 as,"But at day-break upon the first
day following the Sabbaths, they proceeded to the tomb......"
Again in Jn.20:1, "Now on the first day following the
SABBATHS...... " And his footnote says,that this is literally as
the Greek reads.
The Greek is very significant in LK.23:54 - 56. In verse 54 Luke
was inspired to write, "A preparation day, and A Sabbath " but in
verse 56 the definite article "the" is used with "Sabbath"
showing that this Sabbath was the weekly Sabbath, thus making a
difference between the two Sabbaths, and showing there was indeed
TWO Sabbath days during that Passover week, leading up to the
first day or Sunday.
Jesus ate the Passover with His desciples on a Tuesday evening.
He was arrested during that night and crucified during the
daytime of Wednesday. At between 3 and 4 p.m. in the after-
noon (the third hour) He died. His burial was shortly after
sunset. At sunset the high day Sabbath for the feast of
Unleavened Bread began. It lasted till sunset the next day -
Thursday.
This was ONE night and ONE day in the tomb. Friday, a work day
before the weekly Sabbath, followed. Now we have TWO nights and
TWO days that Jesus lay in the grave. The night of the weekly
Sabbath was the THIRD night, and the daylight part of that
Saturday was the THIRD day. After a full 3 days and 3 nights in
the tomb, the heart of the earth - Jesus rose from the dead, just
after sunset - as the wave sheaf was cut (being the first of the
firstfruits) exactly 72 hours after being put into the tomb. It
was a first day of the week resurrection but not on a Sunday
morning.
LUKE and MARK give us the final proof. Luke tells us, "And the
women also, which came with him from Galilee, followed after, and
beheld the sepulchre, and how his body was laid.
And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested
the Sabbath day according to the commandment" (Luke 23:55-56).
They. had and prepared these spices BEFORE the Sabbath. But
notice what Mark tells us, "And when the Sabbath was past, Mary
Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, had bought
spices, that they might come and anoint him"(Mark 16:1). They
bought the spices AFTER the Sabbath was past!
Putting the two Gospel accounts together, it would have been
impossible for them to purchase the spices after the Sabbath, and
then to prepare them before the Sabbath, and rest on the same
Sabbath. The conclusion is inescapable. There were two Sabbaths
that week, and when properly harmonized, everything fits in
place.
A note on Mark 16:9. Someone is bound to say that this verse
plainly says that Jesus rose on the morning (sunrise) of the
first day of the week.
In the Greek the phrase"early the first day of the week" can be
grammatically connected either with the words "having risen" or
with the words "he appeared first to Mary Magdalene." The
Expositor's Greek Testament says the phrase "early the first day
of the week" may be either "connected with (having risen),
indicating the time of the resurrection, or with (appeared),
indicating the time of the first appearance."
We have seen that it could not refer to the time of the
resurrection Mark 16:9 should have been translated, "Now having
risen, early the first day of the week he appeared first to Mary
Magdalene."
It is rendered this way in the Montgomery translation.
................................
First written 1986
Edited and revised July 1998
All articles and studies by Keith Hunt may be copied, published,
e-mailed, and distributed as led by the Holy Spirit. Mr. Hunt
trusts nothing will be changed without his consent.
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