JESUS DID NOT OBSERVE
THE PASSOVER - ACCORDING TO SOME Part One Apparently the "House of Yahweh" church organization teaches that Jesus did not observe the Passover on the evening before His death. It would I guess to some other type of meal which He kept with His disciples. I am not sure what they think this meal was called, nor I am sure if they claim the NT tells us what this meal was called that Jesus observed that very special evening. But they certainly do not want to believe, nor you to believe, that Jesus was actually eating THE PASSOVER meal that night with His twelve inner circle disciples. They put forth a number of NT Scriptures that they claim back their theological position. We shall begin to look at each of them and see if those verses really teach what they want you to believe they teach. One important tool to understanding the Bible correctly is to read the context of any given scripture or verse, that anyone throws out to you as a proof text for their doctrinal stance on any particular subject. More false doctrine has been promulgated by people who take a verse out of context ( or who close their eyes to other verses either before or after their verse they try to use to prove they are correct ) than probably any other way that leads to error and false teaching. Another very often used form of study proof texting, is to use just certain so-called "scholars" and their slant on a word or phrase (which may be from their doctrinal bias, yes, as shocking as it sounds, that does happen within the circle of the "scholars"). Or they may quote only from the scholars of Greek and Hebrew, the part that suits their teaching only, and so once more making you think the scholars agree with them. Of course, they will not tell you that even "scholars" of Greek and Hebrew (and other skills also) DISAGREE among themselves at times. We all know how the "doctors" of the medical profession will disagree with each other. We see it all the time on the investigative TV shows such as "Dateline" - "60 Minutes" - "20/20" etc. Yet, some how we religious people quake in our boots if someone quotes a "scholar" who may have studied Greek or Hebrew. And if a "church" quotes such a fellow to back their teaching, well that seals the matter, so we think, not realizing other Greek and Hebrew scholars may completely disagree with the ideas and the theology of the first guy. We need to be aware of such tactics by some "religious" folk and church organizations. Let's get to the first verse presented to try and prove Jesus did not observe the Passover but some other kind of meal the night before He died. MATTHEW 26:18 You may first want to read this verse in the KJV, NKJV, NIV, or some other translation, maybe many translations. It is claimed that the literal word for word translation is: "....The time of Me near is before you sacrifice the passover in company with my disciples of Me." Then it is stated by Kevin Richardson, from whom this information comes: "correctly translated it should read: 'And He said; go into a city to a certain man, and say to him: My teacher says; My time is near at hand before you sacrifice the Passover with My disciples." I'm not sure where this supposed correct translation comes from, from which scholar I do not know, but I do have TWO Greek scholars and their NT books in my library. I shall give you their translation of the Greek in this verse, yet not only this verse, but the verses that proceed and follow this eighteenth verse of Matthew. HERE IS HOW GEORGE RICKER BERRY Ph.D. TRANSLATES MATTHEW 26:17-19. "Now on the first of unleavened came the disciples to Jesus, saying to Him, Where wilt thou we should prepare for thee to eat the PASSOVER? And He said, Go into the city unto such a one, and say to him, The teacher says, My time near is, with thee will keep the PASSOVER with my disciples. And did the disciples as directed them Jesus, and PREPARED THE PASSOVER." HERE'S HOW JAY P. GREEN Sr. TRANSLATED THE SAME VERSES. "...on the And first unleavened came the disciples to Jesus, saying to Him, Where will You we mat prepare for You to eat THE PASSOVER? And He said, Go into the city to such a one, and say to him, The teachers says, The time of Me near is; towards you I make the PASSOVER, with the disciples of Me. And did the disciples as ordered them - Jesus, and PREPARED THE PASSOVER." Now you may want to study the Greek words "TOWARDS" and "MAKE" as given by Green. They are numbers 4314 and 4160 in Strong's Concordance. You will also find them under those numbers in the THAYER'S GREEK-ENGLISH LEXICON of the NT. Thayer has MUCH to say about those two words, a very lengthy discord and explanation, which I will leave for the reader to investigate at his /her leisure, when they have a few hours of spare time. Regardless of the arguing that the House of Yahweh and some others may want to get into with those two above Greek words, the fact should be very plain and easy to see and understand from the CONTEXT (verses before and after verse 18), that the preparation Jesus sent the disciples to do, the request from the disciples themselves to Jesus as to what to prepare for, WAS TO PREPARE FOR THE PASSOVER!!! NOTHING COULD BE PLAINER! The CONTEXT is very clear on the matter, The day had arrived when the Jews STARTED to unleaven their homes, it was the very start of the 14th, just as the sun had set, and the disciples were now very concerned. Jesus had not yet said anything about the preparing for the Passover that evening. They voiced their concern and Jesus told them where to go to prepare the PASSOVER. They did as He said and went to PREPARE THE PASSOVER. I mean to say, how many more time does God have to inspire Matthew to use the word Passover (Greek is Pascha) to tell us that it was the PASSOVER they were going to PREPARE for Jesus and the twelve disciples? Oh, the depths of the un-believing hearts of some. No wonder Jesus got upset at times with the Jews and their religious leaders and quoted the Scripture "Even though it be told you, still you will not believe." It would seem times have not changed that much today from yesterday when Christ walked this earth. Some may wonder about this "first of the unleavened" and think it was already the 15th of the first month, already the beginning of the feast of Unleavened Bread. No it was not! It was the custom of the Pharisees and their followers to started to remove the leaven from their homes on the 14th. By the late morning of the 14th it was to be out, and they were not to eat any leaven from that time forth until the end of the feast of UB. It was a Jewish custom (part of the Jews, not all) of the day ONLY, not a part of the law of God. Nowhere does the law require the 14th of Nisan to be a complete day of unleavened bread. Only the Passover meal was to be eaten with unleavened bread as given in Exodus 12. The feast of UB did not start until the beginning of the 15th. The 14th was a preparation day leading up to the 15th, just as the apostle John tells us in his Gospel. Matthew was just using an historical Jewish custom of the day when he stated "Now on the first of unleavened came the disciples." He was then in fact telling us it was the beginning of the 14th day of Nisan, it was sunset and they were very concerned that Jesus had not yet told them where to go to prepare the PASSOVER! This He then proceeded to inform them and they did go forth to PREPARE THE PASSOVER. More Scriptural arguments from the House of Yahweh I will answer in part two. .............................
JESUS DID NOT OBSERVE THE PASSOVER - ACCORDING TO SOME Part Two The second Scripture given by the House of Yahweh (as presented to us by Kevin Richardson) is: MARK 14:14 "And wheresoever he shall go in, say ye to the goodman of the house, The Master saith, Where is the guest chamber where I shall eat the Passover with my disciples?" Then we are told: "The literal word for word translation for this scripture is: '.....Says to you the Teacher: Where is the guest room in which the Passover together the disciples of Me may eat?' Or, correctly translated: ' And wherever he enters, say to the owner of the house: The Teacher says, Where is the guest room in which My disciples may eat the Passover together?' " Once more the reader may want to look at this verse in various translations, the more the better. Please remember to read the CONTEXT - before and after. I presume the argument is that this verse does not SPECIFICALLY say Jesus will PARTAKE WITH the disciples of the Passover, hence He did not (according to the House of Yahweh) partake of the Passover that night. Let them so argue and let them so delude themselves. Other verses in the Gospels show Jesus did partake with His disciples of the Passover that night. And even if we go along with the idea that He did not, we can still clearly see from the NT that Jesus DID PARTAKE of the NT Passover symbols - the bread and cup. He introduced to them that NT ordinance - established it - explained to them what the NT Covenant symbols of the bread and fruit of the vine represented. And further, this verse is as clear as a sunny day in the Canadian Rockies, that it WAS the PASSOVER the disciples would observe and partake of. HERE IS THE CONTEXT OF THE PASSAGE AS TRANSLATED BY JAY P. GREEN Sr. "And on the first of the unleavened, when the Passover they killed (this is all explained in another study of mine - Keith Hunt), say to Him the disciples of Him, Where do you wish going we may prepare that You eat the Passover? And He sends two of the disciples of Him, and says to them, Go into the city, and will meet you a man a pitcherof water carrying; follow him. And where ever he enters, tell the housemaster, The Teacher says, Where is the guestroom where the PASSOVER with the disciples of Me may eat? And he you will show an upper room large, being spread ready. There you PREPARE FOR US. And went forth the disciples of Him, and came into the city, and found as He told them, and they PREPARED THE PASSOVER" (Mark 14:12-16). HERE IS HOW GEORGE RICKER BERRY TRANSLATED FROM THE GREEKTHIS SECTION OF SCRIPTURE. "And on the first day of unleavened, when the Passover they killed, (Fred Coulter also explains this fully in his book on the Passover - Keith Hunt), say to him his disciples, Where desirest thou going we should prepare that thou mayest eat the Passover? And he sends forth two of his disciples, and says to them, Go into the city, and will meet you a man a pitcher of water carrying; follow him; and wherever he may enter, say to the master of the house, The teachers says, Where is the guest-chamber where the PASSOVER with my disciples may eat? and he you will show an upper room large, furnished ready. There PREPARE FOR US. And went away his disciples, and came into the city, and found as he had said to them, and they PREPARED THE PASSOVER. And EVENING being come he comes with the twelve. And as were reclining they and WERE EATING said Jesus.......AND AS THEY WERE EATING, having taken Jesus a loaf, having blessed he brake, and gave to them, and said........And having taken the cup, having given thanks he gave to them.....And he said to them......." (verses 12-24). I submit to you that any young child reading this passage will see and understand from the words written that Jesus DID PARTAKE with His disciples of the PASSOVER that evening (of the 14th of Nisan). Is it PLAINLY STATED a number of times, so we would GET THE POINT, that it was the PASSOVER the disciples went forth to the upper room to PREPARE, for the rest of the disciples and Jesus to come a little later and observe. It is clearly stated that while and during the eating of that Passover, Jesus instituted the NT Passover symbols and their meaning, of the bread and cup. There it is in CONTEXT. Now you have the "rest of the story" as one well known fellow is famous for saying. To think and believe that Jesus sat around NOT EATING AND NOT DRINKING of this Passover while His disciples were so doing, is deceptive mind folly to the utter outer limits. But people will believe what they want to believe in order to hold to false doctrines. They fulfil the prophecy of Paul who wrote that in the last days some would turn away from the truth, turn to men with itching ears, ever learning but never able to come to the knowledge of the truth, yet their folly he said would be manifest unto all. One more verse is given, that of Luke 21:11. I shall look at that next time, in part three. ......................................Written April 1998
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Keith HuntGEORGE RICKER BERRY FROM HIS GREEK/ENGLISH INTERLINEAR. "And came the day of unleavened in which was needful to be killed the passover (fully explained by myself and Fred Coulter in other studies - Keith Hunt), And He sent Peter and John, saying, Having gone prepare FOR US the PASSOVER, that WE may EAT. But they said to Him, Where wilest thou we should prepare? And He said to them, Lo, on your having entered into the city will meet you a man, a pitcher of water carrying; follow him into the house where he enters; and you shall say to the master of the house, Says to thee the teacher, Where is the guest-chamber where the PASSOVER with my disciples may eat? And he you will show upper room a large furnished, there prepare. And having gone they found as He had said to them; and they PREPARED THE PASSOVER. And when was come the hour, He reclined , and the twelve apostles with him. And He said to them, With DESIRE I desired THIS PASSOVER to eat WITH YOU before I suffer, For I say to you, that no more not at all WILL EAT of it UNTIL it be fulfilled in the Kingdom of God....." THE TRANSLATION FROM THE GREEK BY GREEN Sr. is almost the exact same as above, but he used none of the "thee" and "thou" words, but more modern English. Regardless of some technical Greek grammar rule in some part of some verse, Luke was inspired by what he wrote in the CONTEXT with other Greek words to make it very clear to us that, Jesus DID EAT AND PARTAKE OF AND OBSERVE THE PASSOVER with His disciples that evening of the 14th, the day when they killed the Passover lambs. According to the booklet by the House of Yahweh the pronoun "I" has been added as the subject of each of the verses we have looked at, when it does not appear in the Greek, the verb not being in the nominative case (the only case where "I" is understood to be the subject of the verb) in each. So they want to get technical. Sounds pretty good to those scared stiff by Greek technicalities. But you need to ask yourself: From where do they get this Greek technicality? Did it come from MODERN Greek? Did it come from CLASSICAL Greek? Well if it did, the NT was not written in either modern or classical Greek, but it was written in COMMON Greek, the STREET Greek of the first century. Then it may be proved this rule of grammar was within the Common Greek of the time Luke and the others wrote their Gospels. SO WHAT I ASK ! The writers may have stayed within a certain rule of grammar in a certain section of a certain verse, just to be technical, but that does not mean they were trying to prove to you that Jesus did not eat the Passover that night while His disciples did. OTHER VERSE THEY USED IN THE CONTEXT PROVES THEY HAD NO SUCH TEACHING IN THEIR MINDS!! Other words in the context show they understood that Jesus DID EAT the Passover that night along with His disciples, and that He said He would NOT EAT of it again UNTIL it was fulfilled in the Kingdom of God. Some Greek scholars want to make a big thing about, claim it proves as a doctrine, the Holy Spirit is a PERSON (as much as the Father and Christ are Spirit persons) because some NT writers (such as John) called the Spirit "HE" and not "it" in some verses. They also were writing technically, from a rule of the Greek grammar (explained in my studies on the Holy Spirit, and by the old WCG in their past literature). It did not mean they were trying to prove from this rule of Greek grammar that the Holy Spirit was a MALE PERSON. Many other verses must be brought to bear on that subject as to whether the Holy Spirit is a third member of the literal personal Godhead, not just a figure of speech grammar, that is also found in a number of other languages, such as Spanish. The Greek NT can be at times strange and somewhat bewildering to us English writing people. First, if we want to talk about "rules" - the Hebrew and Greek of the OT and NT had no punctuation! It had no sentencing, just one letter after another in the original manuscripts. Enough to make the average English reader and writer go "bug- eyed" and pull his hair out in disconcerting bewilderment. What "rules" of grammar were they using for such a way to write? And besides all that, who was to say that writers of the Bible HAD to OBEY whatever is claimed today was the rule of grammar? How do they know it was the rule of grammar back then? Has a text book on B.C. Hebrew grammar or first century NT Greek grammar been preserved for us? I have never heard there is such an old book in some library. But suppose there is, does that mean people HAD to obey it in every instant of every phrase and sentence they wrote? OF COURSE NOT! Not any more than I have to obey the English rules of grammar. There is no one standing over me to FORCE me to keep and obey the so-called English rules of grammar, if I so choose not to. Looking at Greek grammar can be educational at times IF kept in balance and if it does not become an island unto itself to establish doctrine upon. Most English grammar teachers would have thrown their book and their desk and chair at HWA for the way he wrote booklets, with CAPITALIZED words and " - " all over the place. When I first got some of his booklets and gave them to a friend, his first statement to me on seeing them was: "He writes just like he preaches." The Internet, I discovered when I first came on line, some two years ago, has some rule that says CAPITALIZATION of letters is "Shouting." Some guy or gal somewhere at some time decided, in the corner of their dark and dusty room, to make this a rule for talking in Internet space. Are we FORCED to obey that rule? Not on your life, and many of us on this forum do not! We write with CAPITALS not to shout but for EMPHASIS, as did old HWA. So rules can be okay in grammar, but they are not the Laws of God, and to take some grammar rule in some part of some sentence and close your eyes to the context and other verses on the subject, will sooner or later lead you down the garden path into the thorn bushes of false ideas and doctrines. Such has been done by the House of Yahweh in their teaching that Jesus did not partake of the Passover with His disciples on that last day of His physical life on this earth. Such an idea is contrary to the context of the Gospels and to other verses using other words within the Gospels. The PLAIN TRUTH is there to see on this subject if your eyes are open to see it, and you remember to read the context. .................................Written April 1998
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Keith HuntA man by the name of Steven put forth the following arguments: Hi Keith and all Keith wrote: You 15th Passover observers want me and everyone else to believe, The Israelites were in their homes IN GOSHEN on the night of the 15th, there till at least midnight as that is when the death angel came over the homes. You want me to believe (as it is written) some time lapsed for Moses to get the message that He and Israel could leave. You want me to believe the Israelites in Goshen got going that night and all arrived at Rameses (which was not in Goshen). Steven: WCG believed that Israel left the night AFTER the Passover. I believe (as the Jews do) that Israel left the night OF the Passover. RAMESES AND GOSHEN ARE ONE AND THE SAME. RAMESES IS A CITY IN GOSH EN. They did not have to gather in "Rameses." See Ungers Bible dictionary and the verses below. Genesis 47:11 And Joseph placed his father and his brethren, and gave them a possession in the land of Egypt, in the best of the land, in the land of Rameses, as Pharaoh had commanded. THIS TELLS US THEY LIVED IN RAMESES. My Answer: You have a strange way of reading the Bible at times Steven. Nothing here says Rameses was a city IN Goshen. It says the land of Rameses just as I might say the land of London, meaning the land that London was the main city thereof, and that would be all of England. They lived IN Goshen, not in Rameses, but Rameses was reasonably close by to Goshen, then parts of Goshen were not that close to Rameses. Better look at more Bible Encyclopedias and Bible Dictionaries etc. concerning Goshen and Rameses my friend, just Ungers is not enough. They prove it was a city but Goshen was a land area. My NKJV Study Bible has a map on page 104, Exodus 14, showing Rameses and the land of Goshen were NOT the same, as you are implying. Also the Israelites had homes and herds of livestock, such did not all exists inside the walls of Rameses, possibility about 3 million or even more, plus tens of thousands or a few million, Egyptians. Steven: Exodus 12:37, " And the children of Israel journeyed from Rameses to Succoth, about six hundred thousand on foot that were men, beside children." Numbers 33:3, " And they departed from Rameses in the first month, on the fifteenth day of the first month; on the morrow after the passover the children of Israel went out with an high hand in the sight of all the Egyptians." Numbers 33:5, " And the children of Israel removed from Rameses, and pitched in Succoth." The above show clearly, dare I say incontrovertibly, that the Israelites first trek was from where they kept the Passover (Rameses) to where they first encamped (Succoth). My Answer: Says no such thing. None of these verses say the Israelites observed the Passover IN the city of Rameses. It says they departed from the city of Rameses ON THE MORROW after the Passover. Everything I have said and shown in my studies before posted (over the last two years or more) shows they departed on the night (evening) of the 15th, the morrow after the evening of the 14th when they began to observe the Passover. Steven: Genesis 33:17, "And Jacob journeyed to Succoth, and built him an house, and made booths for his cattle: therefore the name of the place is called Succoth." My Answer: It was not called Succoth until Jacob made booths. The writer writes in the PRESENT (as the name was given) but then goes back into the past to tell you how it got that name. No one knows where Succoth was, they have found no sign post saying, this is Succoth in any Archaeological digs. Steven: The Israelites went to Succoth to pick up their cattle (and possibly some ducks and geese). The name Succoth means cattle pens, or rude, crude and temporary structures made of branches which were use to pen up their cattle. My Answer: The Israelites went WHEN to pick up their cattle? Sure was not at the Exodus, for not one verse gives any teaching of the kind you are promoting. The verses say they left Rameses WITH their herds etc. Steven: Genesis 33:17 explains to us why Succoth is called Succoth. Do you seriously believe that the cattle lived right in the city of Rameses with them like cattle do in Calcutta today? My Answer: I ve answered this already. Certainly not for they lived in a large land area called Goshen, see the Bible Encyclopedias for the area of where they think this was and also where they think the city of Rameses was located. Steven: The Bible does not state that they took exactly one day to reach Succoth - all it states is that Succoth was their first stop after leaving Rameses - and it was at Succoth that they baked instant bread (unleavened bread). Being on the move, there was no time for leavened bread to rise. My Answer: I agree, it was not one day to reach Succoth, it was a number of hours into the evening of the 15th, then they pitched their tents (succoth) and rested overnight, hence where they rested was tents or succoth, or booths. It was not a town or city as such. Not one verse says, they marched to the town of Succoth and there rested. Steven: Let s suppose, for argument s sake that I am wrong, and that they took their cattle with them from Rameses to Succoth. The point still remains that they removed themselves from Rameses (their permanent dwelling place) to Succoth (or first temporary dwelling place - as the name Succoth implies). My Answer: No. they lived in Goshen, the land of, and went to the city of Rameses, and from there set out on the evening of the 15th, at night, and went for a while until they stopped and set up camp, their tents, until they succothed, tented. You build your case on a very wrong idea that they all lived in the city of Rameses. Nothing could be further from the truth of the matter. Steven: Here is further PROOF that the Israelites did not dawdle in Egypt for 18 whole hours, only to leave the following evening. Verse 41, " And it came to pass at the end of the four hundred and thirty years, EVEN THE SELFSAME DAY it came to pass, that all the hosts of the LORD went out from the land of Egypt." My Answer: Your understanding is again misunderstanding words. The Israelites did not leave the land boundaries of Egypt in one day of 24 hours. So this type of speech or figure of speech means they were LIBERATED from Egyptian bondage in one day, the 14th day at even till the 15th day at even. They were FREE from Egypt and the past life but not free from the literal boundaries of the land of Egypt until a few days later, that is quite clear from the rest of the commentary in Exodus. Steven: Verse 42, "IT IS A NIGHT TO BE MUCH OBSERVED unto the LORD for bringing them out from the land of Egypt: this is THAT NIGHT of the LORD to be observed of all the children of Israel in their generations. Verse 43, " And the LORD said unto Moses and Aaron, THIS IS THE ORDINANCE OF THE PASSOVER." The above three verses are talking about one and only one event, not two separate events. The SELFSAME DAY they left is A NIGHT TO BE MUCH OBSERVED since they began to leave THAT NIGHT (after) the PASSOVER. My Answer: No, once more you do not understand how the Bible is written. There were no sentences or punctuations of ANY kind in the original Hebrew text, one letter and one word just came right after another. All Scriptures must be taken on any given subject. The KJV has it correct. Verse 43 starts another thought and another subject. Back to the Passover ordinance, the verse before in context and with other scriptures was the subject of the 15th evening when they left Rameses by night. Then the Lord again speaks unto Moses concerning the Passover, the other subject of the 15th evening for now ending. Steven: Don t be confused by the punctuation of the KJV and the little at the start of verse 43. There is no break in these 3 verses. My Answer: The breaks do come and are to be put, but only as other scriptures prove what is what. When you see clearly the truth about the Passover on the 14th (the beginning of) and the departing from Rameses on the 15th (beginning of), then you can know when the subject of one ends and the other starts. Steven: Keith's story chose to ignore all the evidence of a speedy departure. So let s imagine eating supper in haste, all packed up, walking stick in hand, belt tightened, shoes tied up expecting the signal to leave at any moment, and knowing that one will not be coming back. Then at midnight there comes the cry signalling death to the enemy, and liberty for them. The angel which dealt death to their enemies would have held no threat for them. If they were not about to depart right away that night, why did they not get a good night s rest for the busy day tomorrow? Because their state of readiness proves conclusively that THEY WERE JUST WAITING FOR THE SIGNAL TO MOVE OUT. My Answer: Fred Coulter and I have gone over this in great detail time and time again. Your hasty, all done in 4 or 5 hours is just impossible, unless you ignore verses, have all Israel living in Rameses, and a feast of 7 days and not 8 as God said. You really do need to read at least the first half of Fred Coulter s book on this subject VERY SLOWLY AND CAREFULLY, for all the truth of all verses is there explained, and they can only harmonize with a beginning of the 14th Passover and a beginning of the 15th departure from Rameses. God did not come over the houses to kill the first born until midnight, then there had to be time for the Egyptians to realize fully what had happened, some shock and mourning. Then Moses was told that they could leave, but not before the morning, which could have been as early as between 5 and 6 a.m. And that brings us to your next argument. Steven: What about the word morning or boqer (Strongs 01242) in Hebrew. Here are some verses which show that morning can mean while it is still dark> or night. Genesis 44:3, " As soon as the morning <01242> was light <0215>...." If morning can be light, then early morning must be dark. Exodus 14:24, "And it came to pass that in the morning <01242> watch, the Lord looked unto the host of the Egyptians through the pillar of fire and of the cloud, and troubled the host of the Egyptians...." The morning watch Ungers defines as from 2 a.m. to sunrise (see Ex 14:24; 1 Sam. 11:11). It is around this time in the early morning that I suppose Israel began to move out (while it was still dark). I Samuel 29:10, "Wherefore now rise up early <07925> in the morning <01242> with thy master s servants that are come with thee: and as soon as ye be up early in the morning <01242>, and have light, depart...." Here is one of 32 times that early in the morning is mentioned." Clearly some of the times referred to are while it is still dark or night. Thus morning in Hebrew means what we in English take it to mean (with perhaps the exception of being from 2 a.m. onwards not midnight). My Answer: Gone over this in detail in my studies in some detail. The word clearly means morning and only in a FEW rare exceptions means anything different, and then the CONTEXT tells you when those exceptions are used. If the context does not state the exception meaning, then the MAIN one is to be taken. And this is exactly how we today use language. Morning to us means day light and after, up to 12 noon, UNLESS I say in my context (of language use and exception to the normal meaning), I will see you in the morning at 3 a.m. while it is dark. So it was also, in the use of language in the Bible times, with people then, as it is with us today. Only when the context is so defining it for us, making it very clear how the writer was using the word "morning" does it mean anything BEFORE sun up. Otherwise the very Hebrew word itself means morning not night. Better look at some GOOD Hebrew lexicons such THE THEOLOGICAL WORD BOOK OF THE OLD TESTAMENT. Only in such works and THE ENGLISHMAN'S HEBREW CONCORDANCE is the Hebrew word "boqer" and all places where it is used expounded to give the whole truth, which is just as I ve stated. The MAIN and first meaning for morning is when light comes. The second use is only as the context indicates. In the Passover context of the books of Moses, only the Hebrew word is used, nothing more, hence as in all other places where only the Hebrew word appears, with no other exception context to the norm, the meaning is then always morning as when light appears. Just as I may say to you, I will see you in the morning with no other explanation of context, you are going to understand it as I will see you when day light appears - the morning, not when it is still dark or night. I often say this to the fellow I work with, and he does not expect me to be seeing him in the dark. Our work does not start till after sun-up. The EXCEPTIONS in the Bible are clearly explained by the very words within the context. The Bible uses many NORMS, with some exceptions. The exceptions are just that....exceptions, not the norm, otherwise the norm would be the exceptions. Steven: Notice how I Sam 29:10 refers to rising up early in the morning, and waiting for morning light telling us that morning also means darkness. My Answer: Just proves what I have said. The CONTEXT tells you WHEN an exception to the NORM is being used. No need for guess work, the Bible INTERPRETS itself when such contexts mean other than when day light comes. If there's no such context, then morning means morning, and not one minute before day light comes. That is the common meaning of morning even to this day, when nothing else is added in the speech context. And NOTHING was added in any of the Passover contexts in the books of Moses. So morning means morning or day light and not before. Again see "The Theological WordBook of the OT." Steven: Israel moved out early morning on the 15th, a few hours after eating the Passover meal in haste. This NIGHT, PASSOVER NIGHT, IS A NIGHT TO BE MUCH OBSERVED FOR this SELFSAME DAY God brought them out of Egypt. My Answer: No, you and the Pharisee Jews of Christ s time and today, have it all wrong, upside down and backwards. I m being quite blunt about this and quite dogmatic, for Jesus did observe the Passover at the beginning of the 14th, it is as plain as the nose on your face. Jesus did not observe some other early meal as some say. It is written He observed the Passover, and the room was all ready for them for the night of the beginning of the 14th, as the disciples went forth and prepared the Passover. So it is written. Now, just take that clear example and work backwards and you can then understand correctly Exodus 12 and 13 and the rest of the passages on the subject of the Passover in the books of Moses. It is really just that simple. Like so many other things by the time of Christ the majority of "religious" Jews under the teaching of the Pharisees, had perverted and twisted and got things out of sink regarding many truths of God, as Jesus told them, their man made rules and traditions had made void the commandments of God (Mark 7).Written May 1998
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Keith HuntPassover Lamb
Temple Sacrifice,
When?
Written April 2001
BREAD AND WINE HOW OFTEN SHOULD WE OBSERVE IT?There are FEW church organizations that observe the so-called "Lord's Supper" in the same manner or at the same time. Some believe in practicing the "foot washing" as part of the overall observance, others do not. Some only use alcohol wine, while others use only grape juice. There are church groups that use "unleavened bread" but others use regular puffed up bread. There is even more variations and opinions as to how OFTEN this sacred service is to be observed. This article will only concern the last question, as to "How Often?" Paul was inspired to write in 1 Corinthians that God is NOT the author of confusion! Jesus said that God's WORD is truth (John 17:17). Let is humbly and diligently search the word of the Eternal for the truth on the Passover or Lord's Supper service and how often we should partake of it in any given year. Some churches take this ceremony once a week; some once a month; some four times a year; some twice a year, and a few only once a year in the evening. Jude, in the latter half of the first century A.D. found it needful to write that "........You should earnestly contend for the faith once delivered unto the saints" (Jude 3). If the first century Christians were beginning to wander away from the original practices of Jesus and the early disciples, how much do you suppose we today have departed from those original teachings? For us to get back to the faith once delivered we must put aside our assumptions and traditions, and with open minds "search the Scriptures daily" as those at Berea did when Paul preached to them (Acts 17:10-12). The Scriptures contain the TRUTH - the true record of what was once delivered to the saints. THE FIRST OBSERVANCE It is written that Jesus set us an example that we should follow His steps (1 Peter 2:21). A person who looks to and follows the way of Jesus Christ is called a Christian - one who follows Christ. It is written that Jesus now comes and lives His life over again WITHIN the Christian (Gal.2:20) - by the faith OF Christ, not just faith IN Christ. The same practices and customs Jesus observed nearly 2,000 years ago, He will still practice and observe today as He lives in the Christian. Let us examine the passage showing the institution of the NT Passover service and symbols - commonly called by many "The Lord's Supper." Luke 22:14, 19-20. "And when the HOUR was COME, He(Jesus) sat down, and the twelve apostles with Him.....And He took bread, and gave thanks, and broke it, and gave unto them, saying: This is my body which is given for you. THIS DO in REMEMBRANCE of me.....Likewise also the cup after supper, saying, This is the New Testament in my blood, which is shed for you." Notice, Jesus introduced the bread and wine (fruit of the vine - cup) "when the hour was come." There was a DEFINITE TIME - when He held this supper, setting us the perfect example. He commanded them to observe it, "THIS DO....." And why? "In remembrance of me," He said. It was a MEMORIAL - in memory of His death. Jesus instituted this ordinance on the night, the eve of His death. We are to observe this ceremony of Christ's death, as He Himself said, "Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends." Jesus knew that upon this day - the day He was instituting the symbols of bread and wine for His broken body and shed blood - He would die. And Jesus further said, "You are my friends IF you DO whatsoever I command you....." (John 15:13-14). In Matthew 26:26 we read: "And as they were eating, Jesus took bread." It was "as they were eating" that He introduced this ordinance of the NT. But eating what? Eating the PASSOVER! See verse 17 and Luke 22:15. Notice Mat.26:2, "You know that after two days is the Feast of the Passover, and the Son of man is betrayed to be crucified." Jesus knew His time to be slain had come. He knew the Passover lamb represented HIM - the true lamb of God (John 1:29). The apostle Paul understood that the real Passover lamb was Christ, when he wrote: ".....even Christ OUR PASSOVER is sacrificed for us" (1 Cor.5:7). Jesus was eating the Passover, "Now the first of the unleavens (original Greek. The Jews had by the time of Christ acquired the custom of putting leaven out of their homes on the 14th day of Nisan, and by late morning ate no more leavened bread, at least those who followed the Pharisees practiced this tradition), and the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto Him, Where will you that we prepare for you to eat the Passover?" (Mat.26:7). At EVEN Jesus sat down (when the hour was come) with His twelve disciples in an upper room (Mat.26:20; Mark 14:15). And as they were eating the Passover supper (Mat.26:26), "Jesus took bread and blessed it, and broke it, and gave it to the disciples, and said: Take, eat, this is my body. And He took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying: Drink you all of it; for this is my blood of the New Testament, which is shed for the remission of sins." It was the night of the last Passover supper that Jesus kept and He introduced the NT Passover service and symbols. THE OLD TESTAMENT ORDINANCE The original Passover marked the Exodus of the Israelites from Egypt. You will find the events recorded in the 12th chapter of the book of Exodus. On the 10th day of the first month (Abib or Nisan chap.13:4) they were told to take a young lamb without spot or blemish. This lamb was to be kept UNTIL the 14th day of this first month, when they were to kill it "in the evening" (verse 6). As soon as it was killed, the blood was to be sprinkled over the door posts of their houses. The lamb was to be roasted and eaten in haste - with their shoes on - ready to move out quickly. At midnight that night of the 14th (no other day is yet mentioned in the context, so it is still the 14th) the death angel passed through the land, striking dead the firstborn of each family in all the land of Egypt. But those under the blood of the lamb were saved from death. And God brought - delivered - them from the Egyptian bondage that night of the 14th. Compare these passages - Ex.12:7-14; Num.33:3; Deut.16:1-3; Lev.23:6. The Israelites were delivered from bondage on the 14th - the death angel passing through the land that NIGHT of the 14th. Israel left Rameses on the 15th, the morrow AFTER the Passover had been slain, by NIGHT. This day of the 15th was to be a memorial day - the feast day - a holy day (Ex.12:14-17). And that night of the 15th was a night to be "much observed unto the Lord." The Passover lamb was slain on the 14th. The Israelites were delivered on the 15th - starting the night of the 15th from Rameses. This festival of the Passover (all eight days) - from the 14th of Nisan to the 21st, was ordained to be observed FOREVER (Ex.12:17,24), and in this case forever includes our time today. The Jews certainly observe it. It was to be a MEMORIAL of deliverance - to be kept in its season, from year to year. Hence observed ONCE a year only (Ex.13:9,10). TYPE AND ANTI-TYPE The Paschal lamb was typical. As the Matthew Henry's Bible Commentary notes: " Christ is our Passover - 1 Cor.5:7 (1) It was to be a LAMB; and Christ is the lamb of God (John 1:29). (2) It was to be a MALE of the first year (vs.5) in its prime. Christ offered up Himself in the midst of His days. (3) It was to be without BLEMISH (vs.5) denoting the purity of the Lord Jesus - a Lamb without SPOT (1 Pet.1:19). (4) It was to be set apart FOUR days before (vs.3,6).....It is very observable that, as Christ was crucified at the Passover, so He solemly entered into Jerusalem four days before - the very day the paschal lamb was set apart. (5) It was to be SLAIN, and ROASTED WITH FIRE (vs.....6-9), denoting the extreme sufferings of the Lord Jesus, even unto death. The wrath of God is as fire, and Christ was made a curse for us. (6) It was to be killed by the whole congregation between the two evenings......Christ suffered at the END of the world (Heb.9:26) by the hand of the Jews - the whole multitude of them (Luke 23:18) and for all His spiritual Israel. (7) Not a bone of it must be BROKEN (vs.46) - which is expressly said to be fulfilled in Christ (John 19:33,36)" (emphasis mine). Notice again points number 4 and 6 made by the commentary. Many Bible chronologers (i.e. the Chronological Bible by Edward Reese) have seen that a harmony of the Gospels clearly shows Jesus entering on a stay in Jerusalem and area FOUR days prior to His death, and that He died on the 14th of Nisan at around the ninth hour (3 to 4 p.m.) God had foreshadowed the events of Jesus' last days, and especially the last 24 hours, centuries earlier by means of the Passover lamb. God was able, and He did fulfil them. For those interested in the chronology of Jesus last 24 hours I have a full in-depth study on that subject that I can send e-mail to those who request it. Some teach that all the events must have taken more than 24 hours. My artcile answers their arguments. JESUS' EXAMPLE Throughout His life and ministry Jesus observed the Passover (Luke 2:41-42; John 2:13,23; 6:4; Mat.26:1-2, 17-20). He kept it ONCE a year - on the 14th of Nisan. Jesus knew it pictured His suffering and death (Mat.26:1-2). On the NIGHT of the 14th, early evening - He sat down with His disciples to observe the Passover meal. During this supper Jesus introduced the symbols of the BREAD and the FRUIT OF THE VINE. He did not abolish the Passover but merely CHANGED the symbols from the roast lamb to bread and wine. He said to His disciples, "This do, in remembrance of me." Jesus did this ON the 14th - on the SAME day the Passover lamb had been slain in that first Passover observance as recorded in Exodus 12, in the BEGINNING or EVENING of the 14th. He thereby set us an example (1 Peter 2:21). Can His disciples today do any more or any less? Surely the example of Christ Himself is teaching material enough. The Old Testament Passover was to be observed just once a year - on the 14th of Nisan. Jesus did not, either by word or example, change the day or the number of times in a year to remember His death. THE ORDINANCE OF HUMILITY In giving us the account of the institution of the NT Passover ordinance, Matthew, Mark and Luke describe the taking of the bread and cup. But John relates another part of this ordinance. It is found in the 13th chapter of John. Verse one shows the event of the last Passover observed by Christ. And "during supper" (which is a more accurate rendering of the Greek, see the Interlinear by Berry and other translations), verse 2. Jesus took a towel (verse 4) and began washing His disciples' feet (verse 5). They had already bathed (verse 10 - Fenton translation); they were already clean, including the feet. Why then, did Jesus do this foot washing? "So after He had washed their feet and had taken His garments and was set down again, He said unto them, Know you what I have done unto you? You call me master and Lord: and you say well; for so I am. If I then, your Lord and Master, have washed your feet; you ALSO OUGHT TO WASH ONE ANOTHER'S FEET. For I have given you an EXAMPLE that YOU SHOULD DO AS I HAVE DONE TO YOU" (verses 12-15). This ordinance of footwashing is an ordinance of HUMILITY. It was the lowest servant of the household who, in Jesus' day, was given the job of washing the dusty feet of the guests. Some say this command of Jesus was only to the disciples of His day, and not to us today. But they will admit it was a command to them. Turn to Matthew 28:19,20. "Go you, therefore," Jesus told those disciples, "and teach all nations, baptizing them......teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded YOU." So they were to teach US to observe all things He commanded them. Washing each other's feet at the Passover time was one of those commands, and one of those examples of Jesus we are to follow. Even with what is taught by such clear verses, some will still argue up and down that we do not have to wash any feet today. I answer in detail those arguments in another article devoted to that specific topic. It can be sent e-mail to those who request it. DO AS OFTEN AS YOU WISH? Paul gives directions regarding the NT Passover service in the 11th chapter of 1 Corinthians. Some have interpreted verse 26 which says, "As often as you eat this bread and drink this cup" to say - "Take it as often, as many times as you like." But is that what Paul meant to say? Read the CONTEXT. In verse 23, Paul says that what he received from Christ he delivered to the Corinthians, that "......the Lord Jesus the same NIGHT in which He was betrayed (14th of Nisan) took bread." Jesus, as has been seen, introduced the symbols of bread and wine. He told His disciples "this do" in remembrance of Him. In the original Greek there is the definite article "the" so the phrase could read "this do in THE remembrance of me." Now, what was the remembrance or MEMORIAL of Christ's death? Why the PASSOVER - held on the 14th day of the first month of Abib or Nisan, the day the Passover lamb was slain. Many nations observe a "Remembrance Day" for all who died in the last two world wars. Many people observe a MEMORIAL of their wedding or someone's birthday. How often do they observe these remembrance days? Only ONCE a year! A wedding, birthday, or death, is remembered in a special way usually ON THE DAY it occurred. We show or remember the Lord's death by partaking of the bread and wine on the VERY DAY - the very NIGHT that Jesus did, when He told us "this do." We remember Christ's death through this ordinance often called the "communion service" by some as we follow His example of partaking of it on the NIGHT and the day of the 14th of Nisan in the Hebrew calendar. By following His example and observing this sacred ordinance at the same time He did, we do continue to REMEMBER His death annually, on the very anniversary of His crucifixion. It is the most solemn but yet joyful occasion of the year, especially when observed at this correct hour and day. Paul is telling the people at Corinth that as OFTEN as this REMEMBRANCE NIGHT is observed - year after year - decade after decade - down through the centuries and ages - we do show, we remember by this NT ordinance - the Lord's death till He returns again (verse 26). TAKING UNWORTHILY? Many have worried about Paul's statement in 1 Cor.11:29 concerning eating and drinking UNWORTHILY and so do not partake of it. But truly we are ALL unworthy of and by ourselves of Christ's love for us in taking our sins upon Himself and dying for us. So is Paul saying here that UNTIL somehow we FEEL we are worthy, we are not to partake of this ordinance? NO! For in verse 28 Paul has just said we are to examine ourselves, "AND SO LET HIM EAT......AND DRINK......." Jesus said, as we have seen, "this do." He commanded His followers to partake of the symbols of His broken body and shed blood. This verse is not speaking about a Christian being in some technical way worthy or unworthy (actually all repentant Christians are sinless because the blood of Christ has blotted them out, so they are righteous and worthy), to take this ordinance. It IS speaking about EXAMINING oneself - getting in the right attitude and frame of mind for this special time and day of the year. It is also speaking of the MANNER in which we do it. To take it unworthily is to take it in a wrong manner. Notice what the Corinthians had done on this special night - verses 20 to 22. They had a big "bash" as we would say today. They had much food, some of them; while others were left out of the party, and had none or very little. Some got DRUNK on the wine. Paul is correcting them for the WRONG MANNER in which they were observing this sacred ordinance. In connection with the wrong manner, it is worth noting that had the ancient Israelites in Egypt observed the first Passover at any other time or day other than when appointed by God they would have done it unworthily and suffered the plague along with the Egyptians. This is not to say that people today who do not know any better or have not had this truth of the word of God revealed to them, will be smitten down in some way if they do observe this NT service at some other time than on the night of the 14th of Nisan. God is very merciful during this age of the Gospel. But when truth and light is revealed the Eternal expects that person to walk in it, and to refuse or ignore it could place that individual on spiritually dangerous ground. Once truth has come to us on this matter, it could be unworthy for us to partake of this ceremony at any other time than set down by God in His Holy Word, we could be partaking of it in a wrong manner. The Greek here is a VERB - an action word - a doing word. Certainly the Corinthians were doing things in actions that were wrong on this remembrance night as they thought they were remembering the Lord's death. Being in a wrong attitude of mind could also come under an action of wrong manner, so that is why Jesus inspired Paul to say, "But let a man(person) EXAMINE himself and SO LET HIM EAT....." I also have an article on examining ourselves before we come to partake of this service, it also can be e-mailed to anyone requesting it. "BREAK BREAD" - WHAT DOES IT MEAN? Some turn to Acts 20:7, "And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread....." and say this shows the "communion" - "Lord's Supper" - was observed every Sunday. But notice, nothing is said about taking "the cup" or fruit of the vine. Surely if this was intended to be written to show that the NT symbols of bread and wine were to be observed every week, it would be more explicit; especially when one considers the fact that it would have been a NEW custom for both the Jewish and Gentile Christians. If the question of circumcision gave rise to a conference on the matter at Jerusalem (Acts 15), the question of WHEN and HOW OFTEN the death of Jesus should be commemorated and remembered in a specific way would not have been a less issue. But we find no such issue arising in the early Church of God. Let's examine the context of Acts 20:7. Notice verse 6. This was just AFTER the Days of Unleavened Bread, when the Passover would have already taken place. Paul was holding a farewell meeting at Troad, ready to depart at sunrise the next day. When was Paul preaching? It was NOT Sunday morning but what we would call Saturday night. It was between sunset of the first day of the week and midnight (verse 7) and many LIGHTS were burning (verse 8). They were all getting hungry. And after they had "broken bread and EATEN" Paul went on his journey (verse 11). THIS BREAD BREAKING WAS EATING A COMMON MEAL. The words "break bread" are used in many places to refer to a plain meal. Notice Acts 27:34,35, "Wherefore I pray you to take some meat(food). He took bread......and when he had BROKEN IT he began to EAT......" notice also Acts 2:46, ".....And breaking bread from house to house, did eat their meat(food) with gladness." Here they were breaking bread DAILY, eating food or meals; and Paul says we are not to eat the Lord's Supper to satisfy hunger (1 Cor.11:34). Then notice Matthew 26:29. Jesus said He would not again take the NT Passover until after His coming in His Kingdom. Yet later, as He sat "at meat," eating a meal, He BROKE bread and blessed it (Luke 24:30). They did not have sliced packaged bread in the first century A.D. The bread was often BROKEN apart with the hands. "Break bread" was a term for having a meal. THE EARLY CHURCH KEPT THE PASSOVER Christianity has a Jewish background. Jesus Christ was a Jew, of the house of Judah (Heb.7:14). Paul, Peter, James, John and others were all of the house of Judah, though maybe not of the tribe of Judah. Christianity began with Jewish people. As the Gentiles entered the Church they became part of spiritual Israel - spiritual Jews. There is NO DIFFERENCE between Jew and Gentile - all become ONE in Christ (Rom.2:28-29; Eph.2:12-22). All are to worship God in the SAME MANNER - in SPIRIT and in TRUTH (John 4:24). What about the Passover and the Days of Unleavened Bread festival? Are Gentiles to observe as some call them, "those Jewish festivals"? Did the Jewish Christians continue to keep them? Did the Gentile converts in the apostolic Church observe the festivals of Israel, as given by God in Leviticus chapter 23? Paul, writing to the predominately Gentile congregation at Corinth, admonishes them to, "Purge out therefore the old leaven that you may be a new lump, AS YOU ARE UNLEAVENED. For even Christ our PASSOVER is sacrificed for us. Therefore let us KEEP (Greek in the present continuous tense) the FEAST" (1 Cor.5:7,8). Paul is admonishing the NT Christians to CONTINUE keeping the Passover and Feast of Unleavened Bread - but with the spirit of true Christianity - in sincerity and truth. He wanted them to observe the festival not only in a literal way but in the way the festival portrays SPIRITUALLY, remembering Christ's DEATH for our sins and PUTTING AWAY sin (leaven is a type of) from our lives (hence to unleaven us) as we physically unleaven our homes in a physical type teaching and lesson for our spiritual lives. The authors of "The Life and Epistles of St. Paul" - Conybeare and Howson, have this to say on these verses: " In spite of the opinion of some, we must adhere to the interpretation which considers these words as written at the Paschal season, and suggested by it. The words LEAVEN, LUMP, PASCHAL LAMB and FEAST all agree most naturally with this view......It has been object that St. Paul would not address the Corinthians as engaged in a feast which he, at Ephesus, was celebrating, because it would be over before his letter could reach them. Anyone who has ever written a birthday letter to a friend in India will see the weakness of this objection. If we take 'as you are unleavened' in a metaphorical sense, it is scarcely consistent with the previous 'cast out the old leaven'; for the passage would then amount to saying, 'Be you free from leaven (metaphorically) as you are free from leaven (metaphorically)'; whereas, on the other hand, St.Paul says, 'Be free from leaven (metaphorically) as you are free from leaven (literally).' There seems to be no difficulty in supposing that the Gentile Christians joined with the Jewish Christians in celebrating the Paschal feast after the Jewishmanner, at least to the extent of abstaining from leaven in the love feast. And we see St. Paul still observing the 'days of unleavened bread' at this period of his life, from Acts 20:6......" (pages 389, 390, emphasis mine). The Passover and Days of Unleavened Bread were still being observed by Paul and the Jew-Gentile Christians of the first century A.D. The Holy Spirit inspired those words in Acts 12:3, "Then were the days of unleavened bread." Notice also verse 4. The word "Easter" is a mistranslation. The Greek word is "Pascha" (which means Passover). See any Greek lexicon. Contrary to many views the passage in Col.2:16 is one of the STRONGEST proofs in the entire NT that Christians of the first century A.D. continued to observe the annual, monthly, and weekly festivals as given by the Eternal in the law and books of Moses. A study of Col.2:16 can be e-mailed to those who request it. THE TESTIMONY OF CHURCH HISTORY That the early Church continued to remember the DEATH of Christ on the 14th of Nisan is confirmed by the writers of the second century. Polycarp (of Asia Minor) - a disciple of John the apostle, travelled to Rome to try to persuade the bishop of Rome to observe the 14th of Nisan as opposed to "Easter." Polycrates later in the 2nd century also contended with the Roman church in favor of the 14th of the first month, Jewish calendar. This 14th of Nisan/Easter controversy became known in Church History as the "QUARTODECIMAN controversy." You can read all about it in the Catholic Encyclopedia at your public library, under the articles, "Quartodeciman" - "Easter" - "Polycarp" - "Polycrates." The TRUTH on this subject as to HOW often to observe the bread and fruit of the vine symbols of the death of Christ can be found and understood as this article explains, if you are willing to search the Scriptures daily, and really do hunger and thirst for righteousness and have a love of the truth. May the Eternal grant you such an attitude as to want to understand His will on this matter. ................................Written first 1980
re-written and revised in March 1998
byKeith Hunt
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