PASSOVER #4--- ALL YOU NEED TO KNOW--- AND MORE!

 PASSOVER

                    UNDERSTANDINGS


     For us today with the writings of the New Testament (NT) and
two thousand years to look back at the death of Christ, it is
sometimes hard to put ourselves in the shoes of the Jews and
disciples of Jesus concerning the theology of the Old
Testament (OT) Passover lamb.
     I raised a few eye-brows lately with some questions like:
Show me from the OT where the Passover lamb represented the
Messiah and show me from the OT where the Passover lamb was to be
killed at 3 p.m. in the afternoon of the 14th of Nisan.
     For our edification we need to put ourselves in the shoes of
the Jews of the first century A.D. Try to forget for a moment all
you have come to know about the Passover lamb from the NT, and
how the NT explains the typology. Now your mind is clear. Good.
Take the right shoe of the Jews at the time of Christ and put it
on your right foot. Got it on? Fine, do the same with the left
shoe. You are now standing in the same shoes as the Jews of the
first century.

     You (as a Jew) have been told from birth that the Passover
memorial service was to remember how God saved and delivered your
people on the 14th of Nisan from the bondage of Egyptian slavery.
You have been told time and time again the story of Exodus
12 and 13.  How the death angel saved from death those under the
blood. You have observed the night many times with the reading
and telling of these historic events, BUT NEVER HAVE YOU BEEN
TOLD: "listen son, the Passover lamb God gave to Israel to
kill on the 14th was to represent the Messiah."  
     You were never taught this by your parents, you were never
taught it in the synagogue, you were never taught it by the Rabbi
of your town or in fact by anyone!  Why?  VERY SIMPLE!  There is
NO SCRIPTURE that says: "See Moses this lamb you kill on the 14th
is to represent the Messiah to come" or "Moses, I want you to
tell the children of Israel that this 14th day lamb is to remind
them of the coming Messiah, it is to picture His death."
     There is not one word in the books of Moses that come close
to explaining the lamb of the 14th was to symbolize the Messiah
to come.  There is not one word in the Psalms, the writings, or
the Prophets that told anyone about the Passover lamb being a
type and forshaddow of the coming Messiah.  Try to find it
friends, you will not because the OT is SILENT on that typology!
     You as a first century Jew were never told by anyone: "Now
we want you to understand that the death of the lamb on the 14th,
represents the death of the Messiah to come." 
     You were never taught that because the OT says NOTHING in
any specific language that that was what the lamb's death on the
14th really typified. 
     Oh, the death of the Messiah was talked about in the OT, but
even that was clouded in some not too clear words. Certainly it
was not laid out in plain language so none would ever get mixed
up on. It was shrouded in language and a setting that left
most scratching their heads as to what and who it was all about.
Remember the Ethiopian eunuch in Acts 8. He was reading Isaiah
53. Philip asked him if he understood what it meant. His answer
was NO!  

     The Jews and disciples of Christ did not have as part of
their upbringing the, theology that the Passover lamb represented
the Christ, the Messiah.  They did not have as part of their
theology that the Messiah was to come and be slain like a lamb on
the 14th of Nisan!  Oh, they may have had some theology that
taught the Messiah would deliver them from the Roman armies on
the 14th as God once delivered Israel from the Egyptians, but
that is not the same and is a long way from the theology that the
Passover lamb represented the Messiah who would be killed on the
14th. How could He deliver them on the 14th from Rome and die on
the 14th at the same time without delivering them. 
     When we understand how the Jews had no theology that the
14th lamb typified the Christ, then we can understand the NT
gospels and the mind set of the Jews and the disciples much
clearer. All starts to become understandable as to why what
happened ,did happen to Jesus, and why even the disciples were
stunned, shocked, and in complete despair. Peter even saying "I
go fishing" and Thomas even doubting Jesus had been raised to
life again.

     Looking only to Exodus 12 or anything else said about the
Passover lamb in the OT, would never have led you to the theology
that this lamb represented the coming Messiah, who would shed His
blood in death on the very day the Passover lamb was always
killed. 

     Let's use some common human logic. If this lamb of the
Passover was known in religious circles to be the Christ to come,
then it would have been KNOWN, right? Yes, of course!  It would
have been common theology of the synagogue. All would have talked
about it, that the Messiah would come the first time to die and
be slain on the 14th of Nisan for the sins of the world, and His
coming in glory would be after that event.  The fact is the
theology of the Jews did not see the first coming, they just
could not put it together as the Ethiopian eunuch could not. They
just could not understand the scriptures concerning someone to
die and suffer as given in Ps.22 and Isaiah 53. 
     What was said about the Passover lamb in the OT was
certainly no help to them, for nothing was said about it
representing the Messiah. 
     The religious leaders who were against Jesus, and who
finally wanted Him dead, they knew He claimed to be the Messiah,
the Son of God, even God in the flesh. Now if they had known from
the Passover lamb that the Messiah was to come and be slain
on the 14th of Nisan, DO YOU THINK THEY WOULD HAVE KILLED THIS
JESUS WHO CLAIMED TO BE THE MESSIAH ON THAT DAY?
     They hated him, did not want Him to be acknowledged as
anything but from the devil. They knew the people, at least more
than they wanted, were looking to Him as from God. They knew many
believed He was the very Messiah. With all that and if their
theology taught the 14th lamb was representive of the Messiah..... 

YOU CAN BET YOUR BOTTOM DOLLAR THEY WOULD HAVE GONE OUT OF  

THEIR WAY TO MAKE SURE THIS JESUS DID NOT DIE ON THE 14TH!!

     Now, take some logic with the very disciples of Jesus. If it
was their understanding that the Messiah was to fulfil the
Passover lamb, in death and on the very day of the 14th of Nisan,
then you would expect that somewhere along the line in the
gospels you would read something to the effect as: "well Lord we
know that you are the Passover lamb, to be slain for the sins of
the world on the 14th of the first month. Is it this year Lord,
this coming Passover that it will happen?" 
     You know and I know that such a thought let alone a
statement as that never came into the heads of the disciples of
Jesus. They never even thought Christ would be killed, it just
was not in their wildest dreams or nightmares.
     Even when Jesus just before the last Passover, said to them
that the Passover was coming and the Son of man was to be
betrayed and killed, IT WENT OVER THEIR HEADS, IN ONE EAR AND OUT
THE OTHER, THEY COULD NOT SEE THE MESSIAH BEING KILLED!!
     Even when at the Passover supper meal and Jesus told them
that one among them was going to betray Him, they could not
believe it. It was just too ridiculous to contemplate such a
thing. Who among them could possibly do such a terrible act. They
certainly were not thinking that this Passover day Jesus was to
have His blood shed and be killed. When in the garden and they
were coming to arrest Jesus, Peter was ready to FIGHT to save Him
from being taken!

     Do we see brethren the theology of the Passover lamb in the
time of Jesus was not what we have come to see it as of today,
and as the NT church came to see it after the Day of Pentecost
when the Spirit came to start to reveal to them all things and
all truth.

     We take things for granted today because we have the NT and
have the answers to some of the typology in the OT that HAS
ALREADY BEEN FULFILLED. It is easy for us to see AFTER THE FACT! 
We need to try and remember that for the Jews of Jesus' day it
WAS NOT EASY TO SEE!
     
     When Paul uttered those words in 1 Cor.5 about Christ being
our Passover, IT WAS AFTER THE SPIRIT HAD COME, AND AFTER THE
FACT HAD BEEN FULFILLED!
     Paul did not say: "Christ our Passover is sacrificed for us
because He was burnt at the stake(roasted like the lamb)."  Or,
"Christ our Passover is sacrificed for us because He had His
throat cut and blood shed like the lamb."  Paul did not say:
"Christ our Passover is sacrificed for us because He was spit
upon, beaten, and scourged like the lamb" (which was never so
treated anyway).  He did not say: "Christ is our Passover
because He died at 3 p.m. on the afternoon of the 14th, when the
lambs were slain in the Temple."
     Paul said none of those things. He did not get into ANY
specifics. He did not quote from Ps.22 or Isaiah 53.  Paul was
using a GENERAL FIGURE OF SPEECH, based upon what was NOW OBVIOUS
TO THEM AND ALL CHRISTIANS.  Jesus was the "lamb of God that
takes away the sins of the world" (as John the Baptist
proclaimed), and He died on the 14th of Nisan, the very day that
the Passover lamb had always been slain upon.
Those two facts alone put the sealing typology on the question,
if there was a question about it. Jesus did fulfil the Passover
lamb. The lamb of the Passover did represent the true lamb of God
that would die to save sinners and die on the Passover day - the
14th of the first month. 

     BUT THEY DID NOT KNOW THAT FACT UNTIL AFTER THE FACT WAS
FULFILLED AND IT WAS THEN CLEARLY EASY TO SEE!!

More in a future post.

Written
by
Keith Hunt

PASSOVER
                     UNDERSTANDINGS
                     

                  TYPOLOGY OF THE LAMB


     It is easy for us, two thousand years AFTER THE FACT, to see
that the Passover lamb was a type and a representation  of the
true lamb of God that takes away the sins of the world. With the
NT and two thousand years beyond the sacrifice of Christ, it is
easy for us to see His shed blood, coming under that blood, saves
us from death. We can see quite well that coming out of Egypt by
Israel was a type of spiritual Israel (the church) coming out of
the bondage of sin. Keeping the feast of Unleavened Bread was and
is a type of the Christian putting away sin (being a slave to sin
- Rom.6), putting on righteousness (1 Cor.5), and marching on to
the promised land a type of the Christian marching on with God
leading by His Spirit, into the promised land of grace and
eternal life in the Kingdom of God.
     It is easy for us to see NOW, after the fact, that the
Passover lamb represented as John the Baptist said: "Behold the
lamb of God that takes away the sins of the world." But as we saw
in the first study, for those who did not have the NT scriptures,
but only the OT, it was NOT EASY, nay just about impossible, for
them to see the Passover lamb representing the Messiah who would
come the first time to be slain and die.

     It was revealed practically immediately after the day of
Pentecost to God's people to know this typology.
     So with this knowledge we now have let's look at the
Passover lamb in Exodus 12 and see where the typology IS carried
over to Christ, and also see where the typology of Christ's death
is NOT within the Passover lamb.

TYPOLOGY SAMENESS

     1. The Passover sacrifice was to a lamb from the sheep or
goats(Ex.12:5). The Messiah was to be brought as a lamb to the
slaughter(Isa.53:7). He was called "...the lamb of God that takes
away the sins of the world" (John 1:29).
     2. The lamb was to be without blemish (verse 5).  Peter was
inspired to tell us we were redeemed "...with the precious blood
of Christ, as a lamb without blemish and without spot" (1 Peter
1:19).
     3. The lamb was to be a male(verse 5). Jesus was a man, a
male.
     4. The Passover lamb was to be of the first year (verse 5).
It was young. Jesus was relatively a young man (about thirty three
years old) when He was killed.
     5. The lamb slain for the Passover was on the 14th of the
first month (verse 6). Jesus was killed on the 14th of the first
month. The 15th Sabbath day was coming when they took Jesus down
from the cross (John 19:30-31 and the other gospels).
     6. Those under the blood of the Passover lamb were saved
from death (verse 13). Jesus' blood saves us from our sins and
death(Romans 3:23-25; 5:6, 8).
     

TYPOLOGY NOT THE SAME

     1. Jesus' blood was spilled at the cross, outside the city
of Jerusalem, not in a house, as was the Passover lamb (Ex.12:7
with the last chapters of the gospels).
     2. The Passover lamb was slain by having its throat cut (the
usual way to kill a sacrificial lamb or goat in Israel). Jesus
was not slain in this manner as the gospels make plain.
     3. Jesus' blood was not used in any specific way, it fell to
the ground. The blood of the Passover lamb of Exodus 12 was used
in a specific way (verse 7).
     4. The lamb of Ex.12 was roasted with fire (verse 8,9). 
Jesus was not killed by being burnt at the stake, but was
crucified on a cross (see the gospels).
     5. Nothing of the Passover lamb was to remain. That which
was left over was to be burnt by fire(verse 10). The Messiah's
body was not to see corruption (Ps.16:10).
     6. Jesus was beaten, bruised, buffeted, spit upon, and
scourged, so He was greatly marred (Isa.52:13,14; 53:5, 7,10). The
Passover lamb was not treated this way before it was sacrificed
in death.
     7. Jesus was killed along with others (two others to be
specific as the gospels show) - Isa.53:12. The Passover lamb was
the only one killed on the 14th for the Passover service and
meal. The lamb of Ex.12 was not killed with one or more lambs
during that service. There was one lamb killed for each group,
not two or three.
     8.  So severely beat was Jesus that it was foretold: "I am
poured out like water, and all my bones are out of joint...."
(Ps.22:14). This did not happen to the literal physical Passover
lamb.
     9.  Jesus was betrayed for thirty pieces of silver (Zech
11:12,13; Mat.26:14-16; 27:3-10). Nothing of this typology was
done with the Passover lamb of Exodus 12.


     There maybe other SAME and NOT THE SAME Passover typology
illustrations and marks that others could think of between the
Passover lamb of Exodus 12 and the true Passover lamb of God that
was sacrificed for us(1 Cor.5), but I have given enough to show
that NOT EVERYTHING IN EXODUS 12 with the original Passover lamb
WAS CARRIED OVER into the death of Jesus Christ.

     In our next study we shall see that THE TIME OF DEATH on the
14th of the first month was also not carried over FROM the
passover lamb in Egypt, to the time of actual death for the lamb
that takes away the sins of the world - Christ Jesus.

     Yet there is enough typology from the one lamb to the other
that shows the lamb of the Exodus was to represent the Messiah
and His death as the NT Passover sacrifice. This fact AFTER the
fact was fulfilled, could be clearly seem by the apostles and
disciples.

     Sometimes we can only see where the prophetic word and
prophetic typology is fulfilled, WHEN AND AFTER IT IS FULFILLED!! 
SUCH WAS THE CASE WITH THE PASSOVER LAMB.

                 .........................................     

Written March 1997
by
Keith Hunt

"Hour" as used in the New Testament

You may never have thought.....

THE NEW TESTAMENT'S USE OF THE WORD "HOUR" by Keith Hunt Most Christians have for decades now been taught in one way or another that the darkness that came over the city of Jerusalem during the crucifixion of Christ, started at the stroke of 12 p.m. and ended at the stroke of 3 p.m. as we count time on the clock of Big Ben in London England or some other clock in Washington, D.C. It all has something to do with the "sixth hour' and the "ninth hour" they will tell you, mentioned in the Gospels. Most Christians have been taught that Jesus died at exactly 3 p.m. as Big Ben was striking and the big hand was at 3 (if Big Ben had been built in Jerusalem and functioning). They say it has something to do with the phrase "the ninth hour" found in the Gospels. Very few have stopped to question this teaching. I was one of them UNTIL recently. One thing I had known for many years, from reading my Bible and the NT, was that the writers of the NT never used anything like "nine fifteen," or "two forty-five," or "twenty minutes passed six." Such SPECIFIC time phrases just cannot be found in the NT. The word "minute" with any numerical numbers attached is also nowhere to be found in the NT. It would seem the writers of the Greek NT were not really that concerned with the "minute" technicality of when certain things happened as much as the GENERAL time they happened, if we are given even a general time frame. Of course some things mentioned in the Nt are given to us as happening in a certain time frame. We do know there was a general accepted division of the daylight portion of the day. Jesus once said: "Are there not TWELVE HOURS in the day." On research in the Bible Dictionaries and the like, I discovered that it was probably the Babylonians who were the first to divide the daylight portion of the 24 hour day into 12 parts. By the time of Christ the people of Judah also had adopted this day time division. But we are never given any hint in the NT about any specifics going on at a specific minute of that hour in which the event was happening. Off I went to investigate further into this matter, and discovered some interesting points. I will quote from the OLD edition of "BIBLE MANNERS AND CUSTOMS" by James Freeman, under "The Hours of the Day": "The Jewish day was reckoned from evening to evening .... the day was divided into hours; each of these hours being one twelfth of time between sunrise and sunset. Thus the hours varied in length according to the time of the year, the summer hours being longer than those of winter .... The first hour BEGAN at sunrise, the SIXTH hours ENDED at noon, and the twelfth ENDED at sunset .... The first (hour) at it close corresponded to nearly seven o'clock A.M. of our time, and the twelfth hour to six o'clock P.M.... There also seems to have been a popular mode of reckoning the hours of the night in a similar way, as well as by watches...." Please read the above once more making sure you take particular notice of where I have given emphasis. I have NOT been able to find as to the custom of the Jew at Christ's time, when using such a phrase as "the fourth hour I went to walk the dog" IF they meant the BEGINNING of the fourth hour or if they meant the END of the fourth hour. And of course they could have meant some point of time BETWEEN the BEGINNING AND THE END. I really do not know if they used any such language of time as "I took the dog for a walk at the fourth and a half hour." You may be wondering what all this is leading to. I am going to shortly look at all the verses using hours around the events of Jesus' crucifixion, but you will probably remember some verse that says something like, "the sixth hour there was darkness over the land until the ninth hour." Now, the writer did not say, "at the stroke of the BEGINNING of the sixth hour...." or "at the stroke of the END of the sixth hour there was....." It could make about ONE HOURS difference! When the Jew said, "I was up and out walking the dog at the FIRST hour" did he mean the beginning of the hour, hence meaning 6 A.M. when Big Ben was chiming out six chimes across London town, or did he mean at the END of the sixth hour, when faithful old Ben was just about to chime out for 7 A.M. ? Start to count from 6 A. M. The first hour was from 6 to 7, the second hour was from 7 to 8; the third hour was from 8 to 9; the fourth hour from 9 to 10; the fifth hour from 10 to 11; and the SIXTH hour was from 11 to 12 p.m. If we use the BEGINNING when it is stated darkness fell over the land from the sixth hour, then it was 11 A.M. when the darkness arrived and set in. If we use the END of the sixth hour then it was 12 noon when the darkness came. But which is it? I have never found a NT Scripture to interpret whether it is the beginning or the end we are to think of as "the sixth hour." To my English mind and way of thinking as brought up in an English society, I would probably say it was the BEGINNING, but that is just human reasoning based upon my education under a certain English society. Even so, someone else from my society, may think it is the END we should reckon it as. So, if we could find in some Jewish book somewhere that such a phrase was meaning the END (hence "the sixth hour" meaning 12 p.m.) as used by some Jews, would this mean it was used by ALL Jews this way? Could it not be possible some Jews would have meant the BEGINNING? And, that still would not give us the answer as to how it was meant by the writer of the gospel who was using it to give us a general idea of the time of the day this event happen (the coming of darkness over the land). This darkness we are told lasted till the ninth hour. Going back to our counting again, depending how we count "the hour" we could end with this "ninth hour" meaning 2 p.m. or 3 p.m. Hummmm, the writers of the Gospels do not tell us any specific minute as we might so tell today if we were reporting such an event as this very unusual darkness falling over the land in broad daylight. So, the darkness may have been from about 11 A.M. to 2 P.M. or from about 12 P.M. to 3 P.M. Many have believed Jesus died right at the stroke of 3 P.M. (as old Ben chimed out), but as we shall see in some detail shortly, not one verse in the NT says such a thing. And if we take the phrase "ninth hour" many associate with the death of Jesus, we could take it as reckoning from the BEGINNING or the END of that hour, hence either 2 P.M. or 3 P.M. Which should it be? I have no NT Scripture that interprets it as to which way to reckon the phrase. I have never found one to date. And what the Jews did or did not do does not mean it was what the writer of the Gospel had in his mind. As I have said, the EVENTS were the important thing in the minds of the Gospel writers, and not so much the exact and specific minute on the dial face as to when they happened. Hence the writers gave only a GENERAL time frame of those events. This truth we shall now see clearly shown to us as we look at the specific verses using "hours" around the crucifixion of Christ. We can see it plainly from the original Greek of the NT. We need to put aside all the translations, even the KJV, and we need to go to the Greek of the NT. THE GREEK VERSES From the English/Greek Interlinear by Jay P. Green, Sr. "And it was third hour, and they crucified Him" (Mark 15:25). Now, was this the beginning or the end of the third hour? Was it sometime between the beginning and the end, during the third hour? We are not specifically told! "Now from hour six there was darkness over all the land until hour nine" (Mat.27:45). "And being come hour six, there was darkness over the whole land until hour nine" (Mark 15:33). "And it was ABOUT hour six, and there was darkness over all the land until hour nine" (Luke 23:44). Do we count the sixth and ninth hour from their beginning or from their end? Or was it sometime between their beginning and end, during that hour of the sixth and ninth? Notice how Luke was inspired to write it "...... And it was ABOUT hour six....." ABOUT is not on the stroke of six as Big Ben chimed away! Concerning the time Jesus died: "And ABOUT the hour nine, Jesus cried.... (Mat.27:46). "And the ninth the hour Jesus cried with a loud voice...." (Mark 15:34). Was this at the beginning or the end of the hour nine? Was it between or during the ninth hour? Notice how Matthew was inspired to write it... "And ABOUT the hour nine...." That's it, there are ALL the places from the Greek Scriptures containing hours in connection with the crucifixion of Jesus. Those who want to argue that such phrases as "third hour" or "eleventh hour" as used by the Jews always means the END of the hour, I say this: Would it not be much more humanly logical to pick the BEGINNING of the hour for such a phrase, seeing the hour is then to unfold and be completed? Why pick the END of the hour to understand that phrase, seeing that within a few seconds the end would have ended and the NEXT hour would have begun? If we are to just look at all this from a strictly human logic point of view, I submit the phrase "ninth hour" would be better understood as the BEGINNING of the hour, IF we are to pick between it meaning either the beginning or the end. Then remember, it may also mean any time BETWEEN the beginning and the end! Unless you have a theological stance that must be held to and defended at all costs (without any other Scripture to back you, only traditions and a mind-set of being raised with a certain idea) then when the Scripture says Jesus was crucified at the third hour, that could have been either at 8 A.M. or 9 A.M or at any time between the beginning or the end of that hour. The writers of the NT were not so concerned with the exact minute of time that an event took place, as much as the EVENT ITSELF and the approximate, or the "about" time the event happened. There was no Big Ben in Jerusalem to chime out the exact time of the events they recorded, if there had have been they certainly took little if any notice of it, the event itself came first, the about time came second. ............... Written August 1998 WHY  DID  JESUS  NOT  DIE  IN  THE  EVENING  OF  THE  14TH  DAY? I thought I needed to put this as an answer easy findable for people, for indeed many have this question. Hi Keith Hi Claire, I have been reading your teachings with great interest an illumination. ***Glad you found my website. I agree the last supper was on the beginning of the 14th. ***Yes it was. Q But what I am struggling with is that Jesus had to die according to scripture. So would this not mean that he should have died on the eve of the 14th, when as you say the real Passover killing of the lambs took place. KH The Israelites had to eat the Passover at the beginning of the 14th as they were to leave Goshen in the morning of the 14th to Rameses and leave there the evening of the beginning of the 15th, Jesus  was the Passover lamb of the 14th; but no where was it ever said he had to die at the beginning of the 14th. It cannot be found in any prophecy about his death that he had to die EXACTLY when the Passover lamb was killed and eaten.  It is like this: not all things regarding Christ as the Passover lamb was to be fulfilled EXACTLY the same, i.e. the Passover lamb was roasted by fire; Jesus was not burned at the stake, but hung on a cross; yes his blood was shed when he was speared in the side, cried out and died. So though he fulfilled the Passover lamb in type, not all "type" was done exactly, Jesus was not roasted at the stake as I've just pointed out. He was to partake of his last Passover with his disciples so he could change the New Testament Passover to bread and fruit of the vine and foot-washing. Dying on the 14 was the main thing; the exact hour was not the main thing. It was unheard of that any Jew was put on a cross and died in the evening. The law of Moses said such had to be taken down before the new day began. That was why they came to brake the legs, so death would happen, but when they came to Jesus he was already dead. All of this is on my website but there are many many Passover studies and it is all in one of them. Q I know he still died on Passover but the way my brain works because it was 3pm on the 14th day, does this not mean he failed to fulfil scripture or is the time not important. And if time was not important why was God so specific about the time in the OT. KH Because you must remember the time in the OT was connected with Israel leaving Egypt and the death angel passover over that night of the 14. So the Passover then was much more than just a type of the Passover lamb of God {Jesus} dying on the 14th. The original Passover was tied in with how God decided Israel would leave Egypt. As I've explained in many studies. It was just fine that Jesus died on the 14. Oh and it was not at 3 PM..... I have a study on that also. The first hour was 6 to 7. So work it out....you have an hour in which he died, we are not told what part of that hour he died. So even that proves the exact time on the 14 was not important, as long as it was on the 14. Q I have searched for 3 days your teachings but can't find anything that answers this question. KH It's all there but there is so much it may take more than 3 days to find it all. Sure took me more than 3 days to study it all and write it all, about 3 years I would say :-) Q In a few days I am due to fly to Uganda to preach do would very much appreciated getting this sorted as I don't want to preach anything other than the word. KH Hope it is now sorted out for you. all the best. Keith P.S.  Not  all  parables  can  be  taken  to  full  face  value  so  to  speak;  they  often  break  down  at  some  points, i.e. the parable called "The Unjust Judge"  The  woman  pleads  with  the  judge  -  in  Luke  18:1-8.  It  is  obvious  the  unjust  judge  is  referring  to  God  the  Father  -  God  the  Father  is  never  "unjust."  The  main  point  is  something  else  in  the  parable ... verse 7,8  is  the  main  point  of  the  parable.  ANOTHER point to remember is that Jesus was NOT Roasted with fire, as OT Passover was. SO typology is not and does not have to be applied in all respects to the Passover of  the OT and the Passover of the NT.  Hence it was good enough that Jesus died on the 14th, to be the Passover Lamb for God's children of all ages.