Saturday, May 27, 2023

PENTECOST—- ALL ABOUT THE HOLY SPIRIT

 

Holy Spirit - Trinity?

Is the Holy Spirit a seperate person from the Father and the Son?

 DOES THE HOLY SPIRIT HAVE ARMS, A HEAD, EYES, EARS, MOUTH
                                   AND OTHER BODILY PARTS? 
                                    
                                                       by
                                                Keith Hunt

 



The main proof given to demonstrate that the Holy Spirit is a
PERSON (much like Christ) is that the words 'he' and 'him' are
used in the New Testament when referring to (i.e. John 16:7-
15).
Is this proof? Let's not assume, but investigate. 
The Greek word used for 'he' and 'him' is "owtos" (autos).
Here is what STRONG'S EXHAUSTIVE CONCORDANCE OF THE BIBLE has to
say on this Greek word:

    ".....from the particle au [perh. akin to the base of 109
through the idea of a baffling wind] [backward]; the reflex pron.
self, used ..... of the third person; and .....of the other
persons   her, it [self] one, the other, [mine] own, said
.....same [him, my, thy] self, ...... that......them ......at,
by, in, into, of, on, with, they ...... things..... this......"

Notice that this Greek word can be, and is, rendered 'IT' in
dozens of verses (see the Appendix p.1270 in Strong's Concordance
of the Bible)

The Holy Spirit is referred to as 'it' in Acts 2: 2-3, 16, 17.
Now notice Act 12:10. Peter is being released from jail by God's
angel, they pass the second ward and come to the iron gate which
opened of  "HIS own accord."  A gate made of iron (certainly not
a living person) is referred to as "his." The Greek word used in
this verse is "howtoo" [aautou]   akin to "owtos" (see Strong's
Con.).

Translating "he" or "him" for the Holy Spirit is purely a human
grammar tool (we shall discuss in detail later).  "It" could be
just as correct, if not using a grammar tool. The PROOF that the
Holy Spirit is NOT a personal being is found in Mat. 1:20. If the
Holy Spirit is a living bodily being, then Christ talked and
prayed to the WRONG FATHER!

The HOLY SPIRIT is:

Power (Luke 24:49; Acts 1:8; 8:17-19).
Guidance (Mat.4:1; 10:20; Luke 12:12; Acts 10:19-20).
Miracle Worker (Mat.12:28; Acts 2:4; 19:6).
Revealer (Luke 2:25-27; John 14:26; 16:13-14).
Eternal Life (John 4:14,63; 7:38-39; Rom.8:11).
Truth (John 14:16-17; 15:26; 16:13).
Comforter (John 14:26; 15:26; Acts 19:31).
Reprover (John 16:7-11).
Holiness (Rom.1:4).
Love of God (Rom.5:5; 15:30).
Sonship (Rom.8:15).
**Intercessor** (Rom.8:26-27).
Gift Giver (1 Cor.12:4-11).
**The Lord** (2 Cor.3:6-8, 17; Gal.4:6)
     
The Holy Spirit is INTERCESSOR !!
So is Christ !!! (see Heb. 7: 22-25).
Can there be TWO intercessors?

Was the Holy Spirit made into flesh to dwell among us? Was the
Holy Spirit tempted as we are? Did the Holy Spirit have to
overcome sin and die for us?
Did the Holy Spirit become our high priest? Was it not Christ?
(see Heb. 4:14-16).

There is only ONE mediator between man and God - Christ ! (I Tim.
2:5)

The Holy Spirit is CHRIST (The Lord). If the Holy Spirit is a
third bodily being, separate from Christ and the Father, how can
he be the Lord or Christ at the same time?
(see 2 Cor. 3:6-8, 17).
                                                  
THE HOLY SPIRIT IS THE INVISIBLE POWER ESSENCE THAT COMES FROM
GOD THE FATHER AND THE SON - CHRIST.  IT CAN BE LIKENED TO
ELECTRICITY, FLOWING FROM THE GENERATOR (GOD THE FATHER) TO THE
LIGHT BULB (CHRIST) AND OUT INTO ALL WHO COME WITHIN ITS LIGHT.
THE HOLY SPIRIT OF GOD CAN BE IN EVERYONE AT THE SAME TIME......
(see Act 2:2-4, 33;  4:31;  5:32;  8:15-19;  11:15).

If the Holy Spirit is a third literal being, how can he be
EVERYWHERE at the SAME time?

If the Holy Spirit is a person and is IN us (Rom. 8:11), then he
(this third person) is then in us, and NOT Christ. But it is
Christ IN US that is the HOPE of glory (Col. 1:27). It is
Christ's MIND that must be in us (Phil.2:5), not some other mind
of another individual.
The disciples asked Christ to shew them the FATHER. The
Israelites knew from their history and the Old Testament that
there was a Father (John 14:7-9); but you try to find where they
asked to be shown this other supposedly THIRD individual. Why,
Christ even had to tell them about the Spirit He would send them!
(see John 16:15-26).  If this third person of the Godhead had
always been around and was an established doctrine of the Old
Testament, those disciples would have known all about him.

The truth is that there is no such doctrine of God in the Old
Testament text: the Jews did not believe in a TRINITY. The
doctrine of "the trinity" is a PAGAN IDEA, derived from Babylon
under the worship of father, mother and child   Nimrod, Semiramis
and Tammuz. (see "The Two Babylons" by Hislop).

The disciples that Paul encountered at Ephesus in Act 19: 1,  had
not only NOT been taught any "trinity doctrine" but had not even
had it mentioned to them that there was even a Holy Spirit, let
alone that it was a third person to believe in. But they had been
told about Christ (v.4). John the Baptist did not preach any
"trinity" doctrine to them.

The "trinity doctrine" was not adopted into the professing
Christian church until 325 A.D. at the Council of Nicene, and
that after many years of confused debates; as we can see
from Church History and the Catholic Encyclopedia.

             TRINITY IN THE BIBLE?

Those who teach the doctrine of the trinity say that it is taught
in the Bible. They say that such verses as Matt. 28:19 teach the
idea that the Godhead is made up of three separate literal
beings.

Let's prove all things (I Thes. 5:21), let us not assume
anything. Matt. 28:19 does not use the word trinity.  In fact,
nowhere in the Bible is it used.

We can show from dozens of scriptures that God the Father is a
literal being. He has a body, eyes, face, feet, etc.

Christ in His glorified form today has a body, face, feet.  He is
a literal being (Rev. l:13-18; 21:3: 22:3,4).

BUT, you try to find the scripture that talks about the face,
hands, eyes, legs, feet of the Holy Spirit. If he is a bodily
person then surely somewhere in all those verses in the Bible
you'll be able to find ONE verse that shows the Holy Spirit has a
face or legs or hands. See if you can find it.

Matt. 28:19 and other similar verses DO NOT prove the Holy Spirit
has a body, head, chest or any other parts. This verse, or ones
like it, do not even prove that Christ or the Father have
bodies. You must prove THAT from other scriptures.

                GRIEVE NOT THE HOLY SPIRIT?

There are many verses in which "Grieve not the Holy Spirit" is
used, such as in Eph. 4:30, where people say it must mean a
person because it can be grieved. The Holy Spirit teaches
(John. 14:26), reproves (John. 16:8), can be lied to (Act 5:3),
and can be tempted (Act 5:9).

Yes, all that is true?

If only people would put scripture with scripture they could come
to the truth.

Now, compare I Tim. 4:1 and  Rom 8:26, 27,  WITH  I Tim 2:5 and 
II Cor 3:6,17.  Christ is that spirit? The power essence of the
Holy Spirit emanates from Christ and the Father.

               COMMUNION OF THE HOLY SPIRIT?

The verse in 2 Cor. 13:14 is used to say we may have communion
with him. I presume by this that these people mean we may talk to
him. But Christ Himself said no such thing. He taught His
followers to pray to the FATHER (Luke 11:2). Christ never once
prayed to or had communion with the Holy Spirit - and He set us
an example to follow Him (I Pet 2:21).

Notice! This verse in 2 Cor. 13 says "communion OF the holy
spirit" -  not WITH the Holy Spirit; and there is a vast
difference between the two.

So what DOES this verse mean?

The Greek word used here for 'communion' is koinonia, which is
from koinonos and means: partnership, a sharer, associate,
partaker  (see Strong's Con. of the Bible).

Paul is saying to all Christians to let the partnership (all
God's children have the Holy Spirit in them, Rom. 8:9-11, being
partakers of God's Spirit) be (remain) with all of us.

This verse has nothing to do with praying to, or trying to talk
or communicate with the Holy Spirit.

The "Interlinear Greek - English New Testament" by Berry, 
translates this as: " ....and the fellowship of the holy spirit
[be] with all of you. Amen."

The writers of the Amplified Bible put it this way:
"The grace (favor and spiritual blessing) of the Lord Jesus
Christ and the love of God and the PRESENCE and FELLOWSHIP (the
communion and sharing together, and participation) IN the holy
spirit be with you all. Amen - So be it."

                  THE HOLY SPIRIT TALKS?

In Matt 3:16, 17 we read, ".....the spirit of God descending like
a dove, and lighting upon Him. And lo, a voice from heaven
saying, this is my beloved son, in whom I am well pleased."

Some say that it was the Spirit - the third person of the Godhead
that actually spoke, proving the Spirit is a literal being.

Let us assume that view is correct. Do you see what it would
mean? The Holy Spirit would then be the literal FATHER of Christ
(see also ch. 1:20), and all through His ministry He then talked
and prayed to the WRONG Father!

Read verse 17 again. It says, "A voice," not  "THE voice of the
spirit" or  "THE voice of the Father." It was  "A voice from
heaven" that spoke. To say it was the voice of the Holy Spirit
is just an assumption by men; this verse cannot prove such a
claim. You try to find the verse that says the Holy Spirit has a
mouth or literally talks.

Was it the Father speaking these words? No!  Not even the Father,
because Christ Himself said, ".....You have neither heard His
voice at ANY time, nor seen His shape" (John 5:37).

There is not one verse in the entire Bible that shows God the
Father has ever spoken or showed Himself to mankind.

Someone will say, but this voice spoke in the first-person tense.
It must have been the Father or Spirit.  Not necessarily!

In John 12:28 we read: "Father, glorify your name (Christ talking
to the Father). Then came there A voice from heaven (notice, A
voice, not THE voice of God) saying, I have both glorified it,
and will glorify it again." This voice spoke in the first-person
tense.

Now, did the people say, "That was God speaking" or  "That was
the voice of the Holy Spirit"?  No!  Read verse 29.

    "The people, therefore, that stood by and heard it said that 
    it thundered. Others said, an angel spoke to him."

It is possible to speak on behalf of someone else and speak in
the first-person tense. Someone representing a higher authority
can speak on behalf of that authority in the first-person tense.

In passing, notice in Matt. 3:16 the shape of the spirit of God
was like a dove. The shape of a dove is a long, long way from
being the shape of a man.

                  THREE THAT BEAR RECORD?
         
I John. 5:7 is a favourite text that is often quoted by
Trinitarians. It reads, "For there are three that bear record in
heaven - the Father, the word, and the holy spirit: and these
three are one."
That's it, shout the Trinitarians, we got it. Proof that the
Godhead is three persons.

The Amplified Bible renders verses 6-8  like this:

"This is he who came by (with) water and blood (his baptism and
his death), Jesus Christ, the Messiah; not by (in) the water only
but by (in) the water and the blood.And it is the (holy) spirit
who bears witness, because the (holy) spirit is the truth.       
So there are three witnesses in heaven - the Father, the Word and
the Holy Spirit, and these three are One; and there are three
witnesses on the earth: the Spirit, the water, and the blood;
and these three agree (are in unison; their testimony
coincides)."
 
Part of these verses is put in ITALICS in the Amplified Bible.
What do italics mean? Let the compilers of the Amplified Bible
tell you. Under "explanation of arbitrary punctuation" at the
beginning of their translation, we read:

    Italics point out certain familiar passages now recognized as
    not adequately supported by the original manuscripts.

Verse 7 of the King James version was not in the original Greek
manuscripts. It was ADDED later to deliberately give proof to the
pagan Trinity idea of God, that cannot be found anywhere in the
Bible.

Commenting on this verse, The Interpreter's Bible says:

    "This verse in the KJV is to be rejected (with RSV). It
appears in no ancient Greek manuscript, nor is it cited by any
Greek father; of all the versions, only the Latin contained it,
and even this in none of its most ancient sources. The most
earliest of the Vulg. do not have it. As Dodd (Johannine Epistles
p.127n) remind us 'it is first quoted as a part of  I John by
Priscillian, the Spanish heretic, who died in 385, and it
gradually made its way into manuscripts of the Latin Vulgate
until it was accepted as part of the authorized Latin text.'
...... The mention in the true text (vs.8) of the three
witnesses which agree naturally led to an  interpretation along
trinitarian lines, and this occasioned the present transcriptions
which appear in various forms in manuscripts and quotations from
the fifth century on."        
                                        
A deliberate insertion into the original, to try to substantiate
the trinity doctrine that had become accepted by the Catholic
church in 325 AD.

            THE APOSTLES REJECT THE TRINITY!
                   
If the "trinity of God" has always been and if the Old Testament
church was taught it and believed it - if it was a New Testament
doctrine and truth - if the apostles believed and taught it - if
they knew that God was composed of three equal and united beings,
bodily beings, then they surely didn't respect the third one.
Look at the way Paul introduced his epistles: "To all that be in
Rome ..... grace to you and peace FROM God our father, and the
Lord Jesus Christ" (Rom. 1:7). Paul does not even MENTION the
supposed THIRD PERSON of the Godhead. In fact, Paul never once in
the introductions of ANY of his letters uses the trinity idea of
God.

Notice how James introduces his letter: "James, a servant of God
and of the Lord Jesus Christ....." He forgot to mention the third
individual of whom he was a servant.

Peter, in his epistles, acknowledges God the Father and our Lord
Jesus Christ, but did not acknowledge the third person.

John talks about Christ and God, that they are literal beings;
but never as much as once did he mention the Holy Spirit is a
bodily person. His salutation in his second letter is void of
any other beings except God the Father and Christ.

Jude's salutation is from God the Father and Jesus Christ. The
third person was again left out.

Surely, John in Revelation, could have found room to mention this
person that was left out by all others. John mentions Christ, the
Father, and the seven spirits before His throne (Rev. 1:4-5), but
does not even acknowledge the one who is doing so much work today
- the third person of the trinity.

Why all this lack of acknowledging the trinity?

Why? Because the apostles and New Testament church DID NOT TEACH
IT!  The Trinity doctrine is PAGAN. It is another one of Satan's
deceptions to deceive the whole world about why God created man.
It is a doctrine that came by way of Satan's greatest false
church. This is what history has to say  (see "The Two Babylons"
by Hislop).
The history of Babylon, Egypt, Rome and other nations
demonstrates that the doctrine of a TRINITY was a very important
part of PAGAN worship.
The history of Christianity shows clearly that the professing
popular church for many years was in confusion and there was
argument concerning it.

As the church compromised more and more with the pagan religions
round about to win converts and favour, so it looked for ways to
MIX what the heathen believed with the Christianity it taught.

The heathen believed in a NIMROD GOD, a SECOND GOD - Semiramis
(mother wife to Nimrod) and a THIRD GOD - Tammuz, son of Nimrod
and Semiramis.

It was just a matter of time before the church claimed it, too,
had a trinity. The pagan's Nimrod became God the Father.
Semiramis, the queen of heaven, became the Holy Spirit. And
Tammuz, the boy child god, became Christ.

And so another pagan, false Satanic idea was added to a so-called
Christianity. Just another one of Satan's false doctrines added
officially to his instrument of deception in 325 A.D.

God says this instrument of Satan has deceived the whole world.
The whole world has been made drunk by her false ways and
teachings. She is called in Rev. 17,  Mystery, Babylon the
Great.
So drunk have people become by this church's teachings that FEW
Christians really understand WHY God made mankind.

You need to study my article called A CHRISTIAN'S DESTINY.


HERE ARE MORE STUDIES ON THE HOLY SPIRIT:


          THE HOLY SPIRIT WORKS, SO IS IT A PERSON?

Those who teach the Holy Spirit is a PERSON, separate from the
Father and Son, say this is shown to be so because the Spirit
WORKS,  does things. Indeed the Holy Spirit works according to
its will (1 Cor.12:11) . The Spirit raised Christ from the dead
(Acts 2:24; 1 Pet.3:18; Heb. 13:20; Rom.1:4). The Spirit was used
in creation (Gen.1:2, 26, 27 with Job 33:4).
But does stating that something WORKS automatically mean that it
is a PERSON ? If it does then WISDOM is also a person, for in
Proverbs 8:12, 15, 16 and 9:1-3,  we read:

"I WISDOM.......By me kings reign.......By me princes rule, and
nobles, even all the judges of the earth.......Wisdom has built
her house.......She has killed her beasts, she has mingled her
wine, she has also furnished her table. She has sent forth her
maidens......."
    
Nobody really believes wisdom is a person, separate from the
Lord, even if it is given human like qualities.

The Holy Spirit, like wisdom, does indeed perform  "works" -  but
teaching that it is a PERSON BECAUSE OF THIS is as fragile as
believing that wisdom from the Lord is a person because it
"works" also.

          WHAT THE NEW CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA ADMITS

"The OT (Old Testament) clearly does not envisage God's spirit as
a person, neither in the strictly philosophical sense, nor in the
Semitic sense. God's spirit is simply God's Power. If it
is sometimes represented as being distinct from God, it is
because the breath of Yahweh acts exteriorly (Isa. 48:16; 63:11;
32:15).......Very rarely do the OT writers attribute to God's
spirit emotions or intellectual activity (Isa. 63:10; Wis.1:3-7).
When such expressions are used, THEY ARE MERE FIGURES OF SPEECH
that are explained by the fact that the RUAH was regarded also as
the seat of intellectual acts and feeling (Gen. 41:8). Neither is
there found in the OT or in rabbinical literature the notion that
God's spirit is an intermediary being between God and the world.
This activity is proper to the angels, although to them is
ascribed some of the activity that elsewhere is ascribed to the
spirit of God" (New Catholic Encyclopedia, Vol. 13, p. 574, 
emphasis theirs).

THIS ENCYCLOPEDIA FURTHER STATES:

".......the NT (New Testament) concepts of the Spirit of God are
largely a continuation of those of the OT.......The majority of
NT texts reveal God's spirit as something, not someone; this is
especially seen in the parallelism between the spirit and the
power of God.
When a quasi-personal activity is ascribed to God s spirit, e.g.,
speaking, hindering, desiring, dwelling (Acts 8:29; 16:7;
Rom.8:9), one is NOT JUSTIFIED IN CONCLUDING immediately that in
these passages God s spirit is regarded as a Person; the same
expressions are used in regard to rhetorically personified things
or abstract ideas (see Rom.6:6; 7:17).
Thus the context of the phrase 'blasphemy against the spirit'
(Mat.12:31; cf. Mat.12:28; Luke 11:20) shows that reference is
being made to the power of God" (Vol.13, page 575). 
                                     
      THE HOLY SPIRIT HAS PERSONALITY, IS IT A PERSON?
                                                           
We are told by those who teach that the Holy Spirit of God is a
PERSON with a body and shape as of a man (although they have yet
to find one single verse in the Bible that talks  about the
mouth, ears, head, hands, feet etc. of this so called third
person of the Godhead) that the proof for such a belief is in the
fact that the Holy Spirit is given a personality by the
New Testament. 
One writer has listed many scriptures to show the personality of
the Spirit. We should indeed be willing to read them as they are
a part of the inspired word of God.

"As they ministered to the Lord, and fasted, the Holy Spirit
said, Separate me Barnabas and Saul for the work whereunto I have
called them " (Acts 13:2).

"Then the Spirit said unto Philip, Go near and join yourself to
this chariot" (Acts 8:29).

"While Peter thought on the vision, the Spirit said unto him,
Behold three men seek you....." (Acts 10: 19).

".......and were forbidden by the Holy Spirit to preach the word
in Asia. After they were come to Mysia, they determined to go
into Bithynia, but the Spirit suffered them not" (Acts 16:6,7).

This man continues to list other verses that he says show the
personality of the Spirit and so make him a PERSON.

He testifies of Christ and glorifies Him (John 15:26; 16:14).
He has power of His own (Rom.15:13).
He searches all things (Rom.11:33,34, with 1 Cor.2:10,11).
He works according to His will (1 Cor.12:11).
He dwells with real Christians (John 14:17).          
He spoke in and by the prophets (Acts 1:16; 1 Peter 1:11,12: 2
Peter 1:21).
He strives with sinners (Gen.6:3).
He reproves and guides (John 16:8,13).
He comforts (Acts 9:31) and helps our infirmities (Rom.8:26). 
He teaches (John 14:26; 1 Cor.12:3).
He sanctifies (Rom.15:16; 1 Cor.6:11). 
             
Some of the favourite scriptures used by those who teach the Holy
Spirit must be a person because human like qualities are given it
are these:

"And grieve not the Holy Spirit of God......" (Eph.4:30).  Ahhh,
see the Spirit can be grieved, so it must be a PERSON, many will
insist.
"You stiffnecked and uncircumcised in heart and ears, you do
always resist the Holy Spirit, as your fathers did so do you "
(Acts 7:51)..
"Then Peter said unto her, How is it that you have agreed
together to tempt the Spirit of the Lord....... " (Acts 5:9).

The Spirit can be resisted and tempted and so, claim our
Trinitarians, he must be a PERSON!

DOES GIVING HUMAN LIKE QUALITIES TO SOMETHING AUTOMATICALLY
PROVE THAT THAT SOMETHING IS A PERSON ?
                                     
Stop and think now. Have you ever called your CAR, your BOAT,
your AIRPLANE by the word "she"? Have you ever given your boat a
NAME of a person and ever said something like this about it: "You
have to be very careful when starting Molly, she is fussy about
not having too much gas." Now, neither you or any of your
friends actually believe or teach that your boat Molly is a human
woman - a PERSON !

It has been customary for mankind to give PERSONAL QUALITIES to
inanimate objects for centuries. Even God Himself inspired Moses
(who wrote the first five books of the Bible) to record that He
(God) uses this type of language. This is found in the account of
Cain killing Abel.

"And Cain talked with Abel his brother.......when they were in
the field, that Cain rose up against Abel his brother and slew
him. And the Lord said unto Cain, Where is Abel your brother? And
he said, I do not know....... And He (God) said, What have you
done? The VOICE of your brother's BLOOD CRIES unto me from the
ground"  (Gen.4:8-10).

Notice how God Himself said Abel's BLOOD (an inanimate object)
cried out with a voice to Him from the ground!
The Lord used PERSONAL QUALITIES for Abel's blood. But does
anyone believe that Abel's blood was a separate PERSON with arms,
hands, legs, head and body APART from Abel?  I think not !

In the time of David this common terminology of attributing human
qualities to things that were not persons was still in use, as we
see from Psalm 98: 8, "Let the FLOODS clap their hands : Let the
HILLS be joyful together."
Do floods of water have HANDS?  Can hills be JOYFUL as humans can
be joyful? Of course not!

Now see how Solomon was inspired by God to talk about WISDOM.

"Wisdom CRIES outside. SHE (wisdom is a woman?) utters her VOICE
in the streets.......Because I have called, and you refused, I
have STRETCHED OUT MY HAND, and no man regarded" (Prov.1:20,24).

Here we see verses about wisdom having as it were BODILY PARTS
and said to be a WOMAN. That's more like a PERSON to me than any
of the scriptures that are used try and prove the Holy Spirit is
a person. If only those Trinitarians could find such verses about
the Spirit then maybe I'd take their teaching a little more
serious.

We are told more about this person, this woman called wisdom,
"Does not wisdom CRY? and UNDERSTANDING put forth her VOICE?" 
Now we have another person, another woman, 'understanding'  must
be a person because she has a voice, "She stands in the top of
the high places...." she must have legs then.
".......Hear.......the opening of my LIPS shall be right
things. For my MOUTH shall speak truth....... I wisdom dwell with
prudence......."  We have a house full of gals here, wisdom,
understanding, and now prudence.  "The Lord possessed me in the
beginning of His way....... When He prepared the heavens I was
there......Then I was by Him.....and I was daily His delight,
rejoicing always before Him......." (Prov. 8:1,2,6,12,22,27,30).

It would seem that the Lord not only had the woman 'wisdom' with
Him in heaven, but a few other women as well - 'understanding'
and 'prudence.'  Maybe the practice of Polygamy on earth was
borrowed from heaven. Well as Paul said, I speak as a fool so
some may come to the truth. Of course wisdom and the other two
women are not REAL PERSONS, but qualities and attributes that
come from the Lord (see Prov.2:6).

YET THE LORD GIVES WISDOM THE PERSONALITY OF A WOMAN.

GIVING SOMETHING A PERSONALITY DOES NOT AUTOMATICALLY MAKE IT A
PERSON !
                                     
This use in language, of applying personality to inanimate
things, was not confined just to the Old Testament period. We see
the great apostle Paul using this idiom and figure of speech, in
the book of Romans, when explaining what sin did to him after a
full knowledge of the commandments came to his attention:

"But SIN, finding opportunity in the commandment (to express
itself) got a hold on me and aroused and stimulated all kinds of
forbidden desires.......For SIN, seizing the opportunity and
getting a hold on me (by taking its incentive) from the
commandment, beguiled and entrapped and cheated me, and using it
(as a weapon) killed me" (Rom.7:8,11 Amplified Bible, emphasis
mine).

Here, Paul gives personality to SIN -  talks about sin as if it
was a PERSON. He says sin got a hold of him,  took the
commandments of God as a weapon in its hands and using this
weapon as a knife or sword, killed Paul.

Now no one believes that SIN is a PERSON, yet Paul speaks of sin
as if it was indeed a person!

Giving inanimate things qualities of personality is known
commonly as PERSONIFICATION.
Take a few minutes and look that word up in your dictionary.

I can show you verses in the Bible that plainly reveal God the
Father and God the Son have a body, head, face, arms, hands,
feet, etc.  THEY are PERSONS. Unless you can show the same for
the Holy Spirit, I submit you have no basis in fact for believing
that the Spirit of God is a person.

GIVING PERSONALITY TO THE HOLY SPIRIT ONLY PROVES THE USE OF
PERSONIFICATION IN THE BIBLE.  NOTHING MORE AND NOTHING LESS!
       
          THE HOLY SPIRIT, IS IT A MAN OR A WOMAN?

For centuries now (from about the 4th century.A. D.) nearly all
Christendom has accepted and taught that the Holy Spirit is a
PERSON, a masculine person, that is a MALE. The basic proof for
this teaching has been, as one man says, "Language has no meaning
if the Spirit is not a Person, seeing that Jesus repeatedly
employed the masculine pronoun when speaking of him. Thirteen
times over, in John 16 for example, He refers to the Spirit as
HE, HIM, HIMSELF" (Dr. Herbert Lockyer, ALL THE DOCTRINES OF THE
BIBLE, page 76).

It is true, that in the Greek NT the masculine pronoun is used.
But did Jesus actually say these words in Greek? It was probably
in the common tongue of the people that Jesus spoke to His
disciples and the multitudes, and that tongue was ARAMAIC not
Greek. I bring this to the attention of the reader for a very
important reason. There has risen in recent years a group of
Christians who claim that the Holy Spirit is FEMALE, a WOMAN!
They too use the basic language GENDER as a proof of their
belief. And their proof is not without some validity if language
gender is the criteria to use to support the teaching that the
Spirit is a PERSON.

In the Hebrew OT the word for "Spirit" is nearly always in the
feminine gender, these individuals correctly point out to us.
They also tell us, as does the Eastern Catholic Church (see the
Holy Bible by Lamsa) that the NT was originally written in
ARAMAIC and later translated into Greek (their arguments are
really founded on very thin ice) and so again the word for Spirit
would be in the feminine gender.
The Greek itself is very interesting, for though the word
Comforter is masculine gender in John 16, the word"Spirit"
throughout the NT is in the neuter gender.

Now, if we use language gender to try to prove our point that the
Holy Spirit is a PERSON, it would truly leave us in a quandary and
contradiction. Is the Spirit a WOMAN, a MAN or NEUTER?
The truth is, the writers of the Bible never intended us to use
language gender to prove whether the Holy Spirit was a man or a
woman.

A lesson in Greek grammar will explain:

In the Greek language, like some others (Spanish, Italian,
French, etc.) every noun has what is called gender; that is, it
is either masculine, feminine or neuter. Grammatically, all
pronouns in Greek must agree in gender with the word they refer
to, or in other words, with the term that the pronoun replaces.
The Greek word PARAKLETOS (comforter) has masculine gender,
hence the translators use of the personal pronoun "he."  For the
pronouns EKEINOS and AUTOS "it" would have been a far better
rendering into the English language, as in John 1:32
and 6:63; Romans 8:16.
Let us further explain from the gender of the Spanish language.
EL VASO is the Spanish for "the glass." The article "EL" and the
"O" ending of the word VASO give the word "glass" a MASCULINE
gender. But by no means could a glass be considered a MALE PERSON
in the human sense. LA MESA in Spanish means "the table."  It is
feminine in gender. Yet it would be silly to consider a table as
a FEMALE PERSON.

The gender of a word has nothing whatever to do with whether the
thing designated is REALLY masculine or feminine in the human
sense. Gender in language is nothing more than a convenient
grammatical tool.

Personal note:

I had been attending a Church school and Sunday school from the
age of 7, I also had been faithfully reading my Bible from that
early age. No one had ever taught me that the Holy Spirit was to
be thought of as a literal personal bodily being, as the Father
and Christ are. 
From the age of 7 until I was 19, I only thought of the
Spirit of the Father and Christ as a part of their very NATURE,
something that radiated out from their glorified bodies.  It
was not until I was 19 and attending a Baptist church that I
encountered the teaching of the Trinity doctrine, and was told
that the Holy Spirit was a personal being just like the Father
and Son were personal beings.  Then later I discovered that
others teach the Godhead is ONE being manifested in THREE forms.
And still later, found that some teach God is three in ONE but
with no form or body...just a something who is a nothing.  I
laughed at all such ideas of men.

           .......................................

Written in 1985

No comments:

Post a Comment