Three Days and Three Nights - Mat.12:40
Dr. Samuele Bacciocchi (a late SDA minister) says Jesus was not in the tomb for 72 hours. His arguments are answered
PART TWO CHAPTER THREE PREPARATION DAY Dr. Bacchiocchi with some scholastical footwork tries to prove the Greek word PARASKEUE - Preparation, is a technical designation for FRIDAY. "Five times" he writes, "is the term 'Preparation - PARASKEUE' used in the Gospels as a technical designation for 'Friday' (MAT. 27:62; MRK 15:42; LK 23:54; JN 19:31,42), besides the occurrence of JN 19:14". He claims the technical terms "PARASKEUE - Preparation", and "PROSABBATON - Sabbath-eve" are unmistakably designating what we call "Friday." Still further, Dr. B. adds to this the Hellenistic Jews, common Greek and Aramiac societies, the Didache writings and Tertullian, as proof. In answer to this, let me say first, and once more - the Bible is not to be understood or interpreted by what Hellenistic Jews did or did not, by the world's association of certain words with days of the week, by the Didache (about 100 A. D.) which some use to uphold Sunday observance, or by a fallible man such as Tertullian. Secondly, let's look at the Greek word for PREPARATION. It simply means - a making ready, preparation, equipping, that which is prepared, equipment, readiness. See such Bible Concordances as THAYER'S; STRONG'S; VINE'S. This Greek word has NOTHING in itself to do with ANY particular day of the week, a number, or the word "FRIDAY." It just simply means, to prepare, make ready. There are some "scholars" and Bible Handbooks (quoted by the Church of God,Denver) that shows Jews used this word for any day prior to a Sabbath (weekly and annually). Here are the six places in the NT where this word appears as given in the INTERLINEAR GREEK-ENGLISH NEW TESTAMENT. MT. 27:62, "Now on the morrow, which is after the preparation..." MAR. 15:42, "...since it was preparation, that is before sabbath.." LK 23:54, "And it was preparation day, and Sabbath was coming on." JN 19:14, "And it was preparation of the passover..." Verse 31, "....that might not remain on the cross the bodies on the Sabbath, because preparation it was ...." Verse 42, "... on account of the preparation of the Jews...." None of these verses say it was the preparation before the 7th day weekly Sabbath. There were SEVEN annual Sabbaths or Feast Sabbaths also observed by the Jews - the day before them the people also prepared or made ready for its observance. Notice how LUKE not to confuse with Mark, the account of the women buying and preparing the spices, tells us that after doing so they rested on the SABBATH DAY according to the commandment (LK 23:56). Mark wrote "And being past the sabbath, Mary .... bought aromatics. . . . " (Chap. 16:1). There had to be TWO Sabbath days - one on Thursday, after which the women bought spices and prepared them (this was called by Mark "the sabbath" as it was, but an annual Sabbath, the 15th of Nisan) and then as Luke wrote, they rested on the Sabbath according to the Commandment - fourth of the ten in EX. 20. The two writers wrote in such a way that when put together, knowing the facts about the Festival of Unleavened Bread, and how the 15th of the first month is a Sabbath and can fall during the week, both wrote correctly. One concerning the annual Sabbath as a bench mark, the other the weekly Sabbath as a bench mark. How easy - a child can understand! John was inspired to further help us not to think that this preparation was for the weekly Sabbath by saying "And it was preparation of the PASSOVER...." (JN 19:14). This is not to be understood as Geldenhuys explains, quoted by Dr. B., as the Friday that falls during Passover week. But it was the day many Jews got ready on, prepared themselves and their homes to partake of the PASSOVER meal, on the evening of the 15th of Nisan, just as they do to this very day. Jesus ate the Passover the evening of the 14th (MT. 26:2, 18-30), was arrested and beaten that night - crucified during the day of the 14th, when many Jews were preparing to YET EAT the PASSOVER meal. See JN 18:28. That meal was held by many on the 15th - an annual Sabbath, the first day of the Unleavened Bread feast, in accord with the teaching and practice of the Pharisees sect. John further shows that the 15th of Nisan, the Sabbath coming was somehow different than the regular weekly sabbath by designating it "an high day" (JN 19:31). Concerning this idea put forth by Geldenhuys and others (of which Dr. Sam B. is part) that JN 19:14 is Friday of Passover week, the writer in the l.S.B.E. under "Preparation" says this: "This method of harmonizing seems to the present writer to be forced, and it therefore seems wiser to give to the words of JN 19:14 their natural interpretation, and to maintain that, according to the author of the Fourth Gospel, the Passover had not been celebrated at the time of the crucifixion...." (emphasis mine). It had not been celebrated by those who followed the Pharisees sect. Jesus and his followers done already observed "the Passover" at the beginning of the 14th day, as it was originally instituted in Exodus 12. That truth I have expounded fully in over a dozen studies. Thirdly. Because the word PREPARATION - PARASKEUE, becomes associated with the 6th day of the week, more than say the day before the Passover (as it only happens once a year whereas the day before the weekly Sabbaths comes 52 times a year) does that mean the word has changed its meaning, that it now means Friday or 6th day and no longer to make ready, or preparation ? Does the popular association of this word with the day before the weekly Sabbath mean that it can no longer be used in any other setting or before any other day of rest or Sabbath? This is what Dr. B. would want us to believe it seems. Most people associate the word "restday" with Sunday. The words themselves do not mean "first day" or "Sunday" but through common and frequent weekly use they have come to be thought of as Sunday, for that is when most people rest. Now is it wrong or improper to use this word "restday" when meaning THANKSGIVING DAY (as it is a rest for most of us)? Of course not! Despite what some "Greek language authorities" so called, say or claim to the contrary, the Gospel writers did use the Greek PARASKEUE - preparation, in describing the day before the 15th of Nisan Sabbath, which did not fall on the weekly Sabbath in Passion week, but on a THURSDAY, creating two Sabbaths that week. So making it possible for the women to BUY spices AFTER a Sabbath, prepare them on that Friday, and then rest according to the fourth commandment Sabbath, as Mark and Luke clearly tell us. All this making it possible for Jesus to be in the tomb 3 days and 3 nights - a full 72 hours, from just after sunset Wednesday to shortly after sunset Saturday (this truth of "after sunset" is added here, as further in-depth study in 1998 on the word "evening" and the Greek tenses in certain verses in the gospels showed to be the correct understanding). Oh, the simple truth of God's word - so simple a child can find it. I am reminded of my young childhood (about 8-10 years old) in Sunday school, when after finding and believing ACT 1:11, I said "Jesus is going to literally - bodily return to this earth" and caused shocked looks from adults. You see my Church of those days did not preach or believe in the literal second coming of Christ. But, I knew it was so from that day on - it was so plain, so simple - I had no preconceived ideas, just saw an easy to understand verse and believed it. Matthew 12:40 with JN 1:9 is just as easy to read and believe. It may not square with the ideas, theories and teachings of the majority of a so called Christianity, but most of that popular religion practice and believe things that cannot be found in the Bible. Some are so filled with traditions of men and preconceived beliefs or the scholastic philosophies from theological schools, that it is practically impossible for them to acquire the simple belief of a child. It was no different in Jesus' day, that's why He said, "I thank you Father, that you have hid these things from the wise and prudent and have revealed them unto babes." A CEREMONIAL SABBATH Dr. Sam states the annual feast days are never designated simply as "sabbaton" as is used in the Passion narratives of the Gospels, so the Sabbaths of Passion week cannot be any annual Sabbaths. Concerning this Greek word "sabbaton" Vine's Expository Dictionary of NT Words says this: "SABBATON or SABBATA: the latter, the plural form, was transliterated from the Aramaic word, which was mistaken for a plural; hence the singular, SABBATON, was formed from it. The root means to cease, desist (Heb., SHABATH; cp. ARAB., SABATA, to intercept, interrupt); the double 'b' has an intensive force...." (p. 983). In LEV. 23:3 this plural word SABBATA is used where the singular SABBATON is meant, as the 7th day only is spoken about. Lev. 23 verses 26-32 are talking about the annual FAST-REST of the feast day of ATONEMENT, the last part of this verse is rendered into English as, "..... from evening to evening ye shall keep your sabbaths. " (THE SEPTUAGINT VERSION: GREEK AND ENGLISH - Sir Lancelot Brenton - Zondervan publishing). The Greek for "sabbaths" is SABBATA. If the plural form is here correct, then ALL the rest days upon which no servile work is to be done in this chapter are called by the one Greek word SABBATA. If it should be the singular SABBATON then we see that the 10th day of the 7th month - the ceremonial (as some call it) Sabbath of Atonement is called SABBATON! Either way, it is quite correct to use the Greek word SABBATON for both the weekly Sabbath or the annual Sabbaths - they are all days of rest upon which no servile work is to be done - to cease or desist from such work, which is termed SABBATON in NT Greek, and which word is not intrinsically connected with only the seventh day of the week. The word is translated "week" many times in the NT., i.e. MT 28:1; MRK 16:2,9; LK 18:12; 24:1; JN 20:1,19; ACTS 20:7; 1 COR. 16:2. The word SABBATON is the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew SHABBATH which is the intense form of SHABATH, which in turn is a root, meaning REPOSE, desist, cease. The OT was written in Hebrew NOT Greek. Let's take a look at the word SABBATH/S. The most common one used is SHABBATH, number 7676 in STRONG'S CON. which is the intensive form of SHABATH (#7673 in STRONG'S) which as previously stated is a primary root, meaning CEASE, desist, rest. Also used a few times in the OT is SHABBATHON (#7677 in Strong's) which is from #7676 - a Sabbatism. All three are basically the same when applied to a day on which no servile work is to be done. The word SHABBATH is used in EX. 20:10 with reference to the 7th day of the week. This same word is used in LEV. 23:32 with reference to the annual day of ATONEMENT Sabbath, "from even, unto even shall ye celebrate your SABBATH". Here is what the THEOLOGICAL WORDBOOK OF THE OT says about the word SHABBATON: "In addition to designating the Sabbath (EX 16:23), this word may apply to the day of atonement (LEV. 16:31; 23:32); to the feast of trumpets (LEV. 23:24); and the first and eighth days of tabernacles (LEV. 23:39). The ending - ON is characteristic of abstract nouns in Hebrew...." (Vol.2, p.903). The Hebrew for "the sabbath of rest" in EX 35:2 and EX 31:15 is SHABBATH SHABBATHON. Here the weekly seventh day is being mentioned. In LEV. 16:3,1 the annual feast day of ATONEMENT is called in Hebrew SHABBATH SHABBATHON Again in LEV. 23:3 the weekly Sabbath is called SHABBATH SHABBATHON and so is the day of ATONEMENT (verse 32). The Hebrew in the last part of verse 32 for "shall ye celebrate your sabbath" is SHABATH SHABBATH. We can see how the Hebrew is applied to BOTH the weekly Sabbath and the annual Sabbaths. I refer you to the ENGLISHMAN'S HEBREW AND CHALDEE CON. of the OT, pages 1234, 1235. All of God's REST days (weekly or annually) are SHABBATH - SHABATH days. All of God's days upon which no servile work is to be done are SHABBATHON (Sabbath observance) days. God's weekly Sabbath and God's seven annual Sabbaths are all SHABATA (Hebrew) Sabaton (Greek) days - days upon which we CEASE or REST from our regular secular work. In Ezekiel 20, God is telling us how He chose Israel - brought them out of Egypt, and told them to cast away their abominations and keep His statutes. God tells us He gave them "my SABBATHS" (v. 12,13,16,20,21,24). The Hebrew is SHABBATH while the Greek is SABBATA (Sabbaton. When God brought Israel out of Egypt did He only give them the seventh day of the week Sabbath? Oh, NO! He gave them His FESTIVALS with their seven annual REST - cease to work (SHABATH, Hebrew - SABATON, Greek) days, see EX. 12:15-16; 23:14-17; 16:22-30; Deut. 16:16; LEV. 23. When Israel rebelled in the wilderness against God's statutes and judgments - when they greatly polluted His Sabbaths (Greek - SABBATA), did they only pollute the seventh day weekly Sabbath while keeping the annual Sabbaths? I think NOT! They polluted all the rest days God gave them to cease servile work on. All the rest days God gave Israel in the wilderness are classified under "my SABBATHS" in Ezekiel 20. The one word SHABBATH (Hebrew) SABBATON or SABBATA (Greek) is used for both the weekly and annual Sabbaths. It would be difficult for someone like Dr. Bacchiocchi or the Adventist organization which he is part, who do not observe the seven annual REST days of God, to understand or appreciate the use of the Hebrew word SHABBATH or the Greek word SABBATON with a rest day other than the weekly Sabbath, as the 7th day of the week is the only day they associate the word SABBATON with. (This was written before Dr. Sam came to see the truth of observing the Festivals of God as listed in Lev.23. I am very pleased he now observed those wonderful festivals). This was not the case with the true Christians of the first century A. D. or the writers of the Gospels. Neither was it the case with most Gentiles of that time who were quite familiar with the fact that the Jews had other SABBATON days other than the seventh day of the week. It is certainly not the case with those of us today who keep all of God's holy rest days. If the 15th of Nisan (first annual Sabbath day of the feast of Unleavened Bread) should fall on a Thursday one year, and I was to meet one of my fellow church brothers on the following Friday, I may say to him (if we were together) on the Wednesday of that week something like, "Well John, I'll meet you at city hall after the Sabbath at 11. He would completely understand that I was meaning the Sabbath of the 15th of Nisan -Thursday that year. I would not have to say to him, "Well John, I'll meet you... .after the first Sabbath of the feast of Unleavened Bread." I may say to my wife on the Monday of that week, "Honey, I'd better get my suit in to the cleaners today so I can get it dry cleaned and back by Wednesday, before the Sabbath comes." She knows I'm speaking about the 15th of Nisan Holy day. I do not have to say to her, "Honey I'd better get my suit to the cleaners today so I can get it back before the first Holy rest day of the Unleavened Bread feast comes." It may be the afternoon of the 14th of Nisan - the Wednesday in our explanations I've been using. I may have a plumbing problem at home that I'm busy repairing - a church brother calls on the phone and in part of the conversation I may say something like, "I'm rushing to get this plumbing back together again before the Sabbath starts." He knows I mean the 15th of Nisan Sabbath - I do not have to say "....before the first Sabbath of the Unleavened Bread feast" or "before the holy rest day of Nisan 15th." Those of us who keep God's festivals know that the day before the 14th of Nisan (the Passover) and the day before each annual Sabbath is "PREPARATION" day. We may very well use this word when talking to each other before and coming up to any one of God's seven annual holy days. Even close relatives who are not part of our faith but know what we practise, may say to another relative not familiar with the days we keep, "Oh, it may not be the best to visit sister today, as she will be very busy - she uses this day as a preparation day for the feast of Trumpets that she and her family observe tomorrow." We who observe the festivals of Lev. 23 and others who do not, but are close friends or relatives familiar with our practices, know that the words SABBATH AND PREPARATION are not intrinsically tied to just the seventh day and sixth day of the week. It was no different for the Jews, early Christians and many Gentiles of the first century A. D. HIGH DAY ? Dr. B. points out by referring to Israel Abrahams, a noted Jewish scholar that there is no instance before JN 19:31 of the use of the term 'high day' or 'Great Sabbath' in Rabbinical literature. In doing this he also destroys any argument he may have for believing this phrase means a "special weekly Sabbath," (as he claims it does because he believes the 15th annual Sabbath and the weekly Sabbath fell together in the year Jesus died) because what can be shown by later Rabbinic use and literature of the term "Great Sabbath" or "high day" can have no bearing on the way John used it. And further, terms such as "Good Friday" or "Holy Saturday" coined by the Roman Catholic church much later than John, can also bear no proof in supporting the belief that "an high day" in JN 19:31 means special weekly Sabbath, special because the 15th of Nisan Sabbath is believed to have fallen upon the weekly Sabbath. Exactly what John had in mind by calling the Sabbath that was coming a "GREAT DAY" or "High Day" we may have to wait until the resurrection to ask him. But here is one thought. As most of the Jews and their religious leaders did not eat the Passover meal until the evening of the 15th (as the Jews do to this day) as shown in JN 18:28, the start of the first annual Sabbath of the feast of Unleavened Bread, it may be that John was merely saying that the coming Sabbath was great because the Jewish society had fused the Passover meal and annual Sabbath into one, whereby making that particular Sabbath "great" in their eyes. Since the first writing of this reply to Dr. Sam in 1986 (now editing in 1998), the Church of God, 7th Day, out of Denver have discovered some interesting and enlightening facts. Quoting from their booklet on the subject: ".......In JN.19:31......The NIV renders the tow Greek words 'megale hemera' as 'special.' The KJV and many other translations render 'megale hemera' as 'high day.' The Greek words 'megale hemera' literally means 'great day.' ....... there is Biblical evidence to support the argument that the reference to this sabbath as a 'great day' (megale hemera) is a reference to a festival.....sabbath..... In the Septuagint version of the Old Testament (Greek translation of the OT - Keith Hunt) Isaiah 1:13 uses the phrase 'great day' to refer to the festival sabbaths. The latter part of verse 13 says, '....I cannot bear your evil assemblies.' In the Hebrew text, the word from which 'assemblies' is translated is 'atsarah' which means 'solemn assembly.' ....... In the Greek version of Isaiah 1:13, the word 'atsarah' is translated is translated as 'hemeran megalen' which means 'great day.' Thus the Greek text of Isaiah 1:13 uses the same reference for an annual Jewish festival sabbath as does John in John .....19:31. The meaning assigned to 'assembly' ('solemn assembly' in Isaiah 1:13) is recognized as a reference in general to the festival sabbaths of Israel. Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible indicates Isaiah's reference to 'atsarah' is a reference to any festival or holiday, and not to the Passover Sabbath alone." The context of Isaiah 1:13 and the very verse itself would prove Strong's Con. to be correct. This Greek phrase 'megale hemera' includes ANY special day - any Sabbath of God (weekly and annual) as well as New Month day. God is telling Judah (and He is speaking to Judah in Isaiah chapter one, see verse one) that when they call any "great day" (megale hemera) to meet upon, He cannot bear with them for they continue to do evil, there is no repentance and no real desire to do His will, notice verses 15-20. To be perfectly honest with the Scriptures, this Greek phrase we are looking at, can refer to the weekly Sabbath as well. The context of Isaiah 1:13 includes the weekly Sabbath also. The Church of God (7th Day), Denver, do not understand the truth of John 7:37, where this Greek 'megale hemera' is again used. They think verse 37 refers to the 8th day coming after the seven day Feast of Tabernacles, and so believe once again that this Greek phrase is used only for annual Sabbaths. But the truth is that John 7:37 is concerning the last or 7th day of the Feast of tabernacles, which had become a special day with the Jews, in how they observed it with certain rituals and ceremonies concerning the use of "water." Hence Jesus taking the opportunity to talk about the true fountain of living water. All this is fully explained in another study I have called "The Truth about John 7:37." So, the Jews used this Greek phrase 'megale hemera' for ANY special day, whether a Sabbath or not (the 7th day or last day of the feast of Tabernacles is not a Sabbath day as Lev. 23 shows). It may also be true that this phrase used by John was simply borrowed from Isaiah 1:13 and was not in common use among the Rabbis of his time. It may be peculiar to John. To John the Sabbath coming the day following the death of Jesus was a "great day." By itself it cannot prove this was used only for an annual Sabbath, or for a day when an annual and weekly Sabbath came together on the same day. John's use of "an high - great day" cannot prove by itself that an annual Sabbath is meant, then on the other hand it cannot prove it was a special weekly Sabbath either, as this phrase is not found in Rabbinical literature before JN 19:31. The only way to understand what Sabbath was coming as Jesus was put into the tomb, and what "preparation" day for the Passover it was, and how the women could buy spices AFTER the Sabbath, prepare them and then rest on the Sabbath according to the fourth commandment, is by believing Jesus meant what He said and said what He meant in MAT 12:40 in that He would be 3 days AND 3 nights in the tomb, and that there was then TWO Sabbaths in that Passover week, one on a Thursday (the 15th of Nisan Sabbath, the first day of the feast of Unleavened Bread) and then the weekly Sabbath on the following Saturday. We shall study more later about the two Sabbaths of Passover week. PREPARATION OF THE PASSOVER I do not teach that the Greek "Preparation of the Passover" is used as a technical designation for the day before the Passover. As I've stated before, it is merely a Greek word that means - make ready, prepare, equip, and has no intrinsic connection with FRIDAY or any specific day. The day before any weekly or annual Sabbath or the day before the 14th of Nisan, was "preparation" as it is in Jewish homes and those who keep God's festivals today. This word PARASKEUE is used only 6 times in the NT (MT. 27:62; MRK. 15:42; LK 23:54; JN.19:14,31,42). Because people do not believe Jesus knew how many hours there was in a day (which he did - JN 11:9) and because they do not believe Jesus meant 3 days and 3 nights (72 hours) but two nights one day and part of a second day, in Mat. 12:40. Because they do not believe Jonah was 3 days and 3 nights in the fish but some length of time less than that. Because they will not see the Sabbath following the preparation in the above cited verses, was not automatically meaning the weekly Sabbath at all. Because they will not see that there were TWO Sabbath days during Passion week. Because of all this, they assume the Sabbath after "preparation - PARASKEUE" is SATURDAY and that PARASKEUE used as the preparation day before MUST BE "Friday". Do you see the CIRCLE of their reasoning? PARASKEUE used in these six places must mean Friday as the Saturday Sabbath was coming, and as the Sabbath following PARASKEUE was Saturday then PARASKEUE - preparation, must mean "Friday" at all times. This circle of reasoning, based on false assumptions based on a false pagan festival of EASTER (that was adopted by the Roman Catholic church in place of the PASSOVER) based on the false assumption that Jesus rose Sunday morning (there is not ONE verse that says Christ's resurrection took place on the morning of the first day) has led some to write, "The fact must be faced that no example of the use of PARASKEUE is cited for any day other than Friday," (Leon Morris, THE GOSPEL ACCORDING TO JOHN). Now I do not see the word "Friday" in the NT at all - so the burden of proof rests with Leon Morris and others like him to prove to me that the Sabbath following PARASKEUE was Saturday and that PARASKEUE is equivalent to the word "Friday" at all times. With my child-like belief in what Jesus said in MAT. 12:40 with JN 11:9 Leon Morris, Dr. Sam, and other so called "scholars" will never prove it, for it is not provable. Again let me repeat, you do not need a degree in Greek or Church History to understand the plain teachings of God's word. You do need to read ALL of the scriptures on a particular topic, let the Bible interpret itself and have a little child's belief. UNDISPUTED TRADITION Dr. Bacchiocchi writes "....Christian tradition has unanimously held to the Friday - Crucifixion/Sunday - Resurrection chronology." I answer to this, that so called Christian tradition has, since about 150 A. D. held to an EASTER tradition in place of the PASSOVER celebration. Christian tradition has held from about the same time or earlier, to a Sunday observance in place of the Sabbath. This same traditional Christianity has held from about the 4th century, to a December 25th birthday of Christ. There are other long held customs and beliefs of traditional Christianity that are just as unfounded Biblically as those mentioned above. If traditional Christianity can be so wrong on the above, it certainly can also be on the length of time Jesus was in the tomb. Dr. B. acknowledges that some early Christian writers did place the Last Supper on TUESDAY evening and not Thursday evening, but then goes on to say regarding the Crucifixion "no early Christian writer ever disputed or doubted its occurrence on Friday." What does Dr. Sam think those early Christian writers were doing that placed the Last Supper on Tuesday evening? Does he think they were teaching Jesus partook of the Passover meal on Tuesday evening but was not put on the cross until Friday? Does he think they were teaching that the events recorded in the Gospels from the Passover meal to Jesus being put on the stake lasted from Tuesday evening to Friday morning? Surely it should be obvious to any logical thinking person that a writer claiming Jesus partook of the Last Supper on Tuesday evening is at the same time claiming Jesus was not crucified on a Friday but on a Wednesday. As to Dr. Sam's statement, "The absence of any early Christian polemic regarding the day of Christ's Crucifixion and Resurrection, offers, in our view, an overwhelming proof of the trustworthiness of the traditional chronology of the Crucifixion and Resurrection," I will repeat that those early Christian writers who maintained Jesus ate the Last Supper on Tuesday evening, were putting forth the argument that Jesus was NOT crucified on a Friday. Even those early Christian writers who adapted Sunday as the Lord's Day in place of the seventh day Sabbath, did not emphasis Christ's resurrection on Sunday as number one proof for the change of day, (see Dr. Bacchiocchi's book FROM SABBATH TO SUNDAY, pp. 270-273). I submit that the belief that Jesus had risen Sunday morning had not yet cemented itself in Christianity at large, and that there were many who still knew in those early days, that Jesus ate the Passover meal on Tuesday evening and was hence crucified on Wednesday and resurrected 3 days and 3 nights later. You can find early writings in defense of Sunday observance but where do you find early writings to counter this and uphold Sabbath keeping and answer the claims (one being the Resurrection of Jesus on Sunday) being put forth by Sunday observing theologians, outside of the Bible. There is just a little here and there to show that God's people continued to keep the Passover and not Easter, and that Jesus ate the Passover on Tuesday evening. But in the main, the extra Biblical writings of God's true servants in response to "those who taught Sunday and Easter observance, and the idea that Jesus was crucified on a Friday and resurrected on a Sunday morning" was diabolically destroyed by a religious force that claimed to be Christian but was in reality the power and working of the Adversary - Satan the Devil, that God says has deceived the whole world (Rev. 12:9) and made the inhabitants of the world spiritually drunk on her spiritual fornications and lies (Rev. 17: 1-5). It is the pagan Easter observers and their theory of a Sunday morning Resurrection (there's not one single verse that says Jesus rose on the MORNING of the first day of the week in the NT) that is based on human fantasy, who teach Christ died on a Friday (Dr. Sam is one exception, not being an Easter observer) and not those of us who believe what Jesus clearly said in MAT. 12:40. CHAPTER FOUR - THE DAY OF THE RESURRECTION LATE OR AFTER? I completely (and have always so, believed and taught) agree with Dr. Sam's study and conclusion of how MAT. 28:1 should read. I can do no more than quote him, ".......in the light of the above considerations on the language and context of Matthew 28:1, we conclude that this passage offers no support whatsoever to the view of a late Sabbath afternoon....... visit of the woman to the sepulchre. The indications submitted have amply established that the plain sense of MAT. 28:1 is: "After the Sabbath, as dawn on the first day of the week......" (NIV). The internal evidence of the other Gospel writers, the very context of the verses that follow MAT. 28:1, and the fact that there is no hint whatsoever anywhere in the NT that the women came to the tomb TWICE (once late on the Sabbath, and again early on Sunday morning), leaves know doubt that the Greek word under dispute in MAT.28:1 should be understood and translated as "After" and not as "Late on." I refer the reader on this particular point of out topic to both Dr.Sam's book and to the book on the same subject (The 3 days and 3 nights) by Ralph Woodrow. While I disagree with their overall teaching about 3 days and 3 nights, they are quite correct on this one point. The Church of God(7th Day), Denver, are very incorrect here in their stand that MAT. 28:1 should read, "Late on the Sabbath...." I will take the time to quote from the booklet by Woodrow: "......MAT. 28:1: In the end of the Sabbath.......The context mentions a great earthquake, an angel descending from heaven, rolls back the stone from the tomb, and announces that Jesus has risen from the dead! The women quickly go to tell the disciples the glad news, and then actually see the risen Christ ......all of these things, took place 'in the end of the Sabbath,' we are told, so not on Sunday morning at all! ....... So, 'in the end of the sabbath.' or 'late on the sabbath' (as some translate it), was when the resurrection took place. One writer....... states: The women came to the tomb 'late on the sabbath.' The stone was rolled away 'late on the sabbath.' The tomb was empty 'late on the sabbath.' The angel said Jesus had risen, 'late on the sabbath.' Since all these things happened 'late on the sabbath,' he reasons, 'Is it not the silliest kind of nonsense to say that the resurrection took place on Sunday morning?' ....... If it was late on the sabbath when the women discovered the stone was rolled away, why would they be asking the next morning: 'Who shall roll us away the stone from the door of the sepulchre/' (MARK 16:2,3). If it was late on the sabbath that the women found the tomb empty, why would they be taking spices to anoint the dead body the next morning, knowing it was not there? (LK. 24:1). If it was late on the sabbath that the angel told the two Marys to 'go quickly, and tell His disciples that He is risen' (MAT. 28:7), why would the disciples be so unconcerned that they calmly waited until morning before going to check it out? The fact is, they 'ran' to the tomb as soon as they heard the report! (JOHN 20:4). If it was late on the sabbath that Mary Magdalene visited the tomb, found it empty, and actually saw and worshipped the resurrected Christ, why would she be weeping the next morning at the tomb and asking the supposed gardener where the body had been placed? (JN. 20:1,11,15). If it was late on the sabbath that the women discovered the empty tomb, why do the other accounts link it with dawn, and why does even Matthew 28:1 say it was 'as it began to dawn'? Dawn is when the sun is coming up, not when it is going down! ........." Very logical questions as we look at all the accounts of the four Gospels. There is no way around it, the only conclusion is that MAT. 28:1 should not be taken as "late on the sabbath" but "after the sabbath" or "ending the sabbath, as it began to dawn towards......" Matthew is telling us the same as the other three Gospel writers, that the Sabbath ENDING, after it was over, and as it was BEGINNING to DAWN TOWARDS the first of the week (there is only one dawn in any 24 hour day), as John was inspired to write "while it was yet DARK" (more darkness than light yet the sun was on its way up, maybe a red yellow skyline where the sun would come up), the ladies came FOR THE FIRST AND ONLY TIME to the tomb to anoint the body of Christ, with the spices they had BOUGHT after the Sabbath (and prepared them after that 15th of Nisan Sabbath), then rested on the Sabbath according to the commandment (7th day Sabbath). Being excited to do this anointing work they left their homes very early the night of the first day, coming to the tomb while it was still yet dark, wondering who would roll away the stone from the entrance. It was already rolled away. An angel was already there to tell them Christ was not there for He had already risen from the dead, as He said He would. TWO SABBATHS OR NOT? I must comment on how Dr. Sam tries to synthesize MRK. 16:1 with LK. 23:56. He outrules the women buying the spices on Saturday night, but, he says, "....... the women could easily have gone out to purchase spices early Sunday morning....... " and he further surmises and theorizes, ".......according to Luke the women had already started to prepare 'spices and ointments' on Friday afternoon (LK. 23:56). Thus, it is possible that the women went out very early Sunday morning to buy only those missing ingredients and then they went back home to finish the mixing, before hastening to the tomb. According to Mark, 'they went to the tomb when the sun had risen' (MRK. 16:2) ......." (emphasis mine). I must give Dr. B. credit for trying and coming up with an ingenious theory - most of his colleagues will just ignore MRK. 16:1 and LK. 23:56. But that is all I can give him credit for - an imaginative theory. First, we are to believe the women FORGOT some ingredients on Friday when buying the spices. There were THREE women doing this buying (MRK. 16:1; LK. 23:55-56) at least, and we are to believe they all still forgot some of the things they would need. Secondly, we are to believe the stores were open very early Sunday morning (none of these women had any of the forgotten ingredients at home with them or any friend to borrow them from it seems) so these women could buy the forgotten items, return and finish preparing the spices and get to the tomb " as it began to dawn towards the first of the week " (MT. 28:1) and "when it was yet dark " (JN 20:1). Thirdly, we understand Mark's statement "when the sun had risen" by the question, "how much had it risen" which is answered by Matthew and John in that it was BEGINNING to dawn TOWARDS the day but was still "yet dar." There was still more darkness than light when they ARRIVED at the tomb. Have you ever arose early in the morning when the sun was still down over the horizon but light was beginning to break forth, yet it was still more dark than light? I have. This was the time of day or night (whichever way you want to look at it) that the woman arrived at the tomb - it is only by putting Matthew's and John's account with Mark's that a clear picture is formed. To quote only Mark is nice for those who would like 3 or 4 hours after sun rise, so the women could get to the store, buy the items they had all forgotten on Friday, return and finish preparing them, and still get to the tomb during the morning of the first day to see the resurrection of Christ. But the plain Biblical fact is NONE of those who went to the tomb that early morning SAW Jesus being resurrected - when they got there Jesus was already gone - the stone was already rolled away and Christ was not there. THERE IS NOT ONE VERSE IN THE NT THAT SAYS JESUS WAS RESURRECTED ON SUNDAY MORNING! You try to find it. Yet those who speak of Christ being resurrected on a Sunday teach it as if it is a Biblical FACT, although they cannot show one verse that says He was. And still they want to say that those of us who believe Jesus to have been in the grave for three days and three nights as He said He would be, base our belief "on human fantasy and not on a Biblical fact." At least I can give you the reader, the fact of MAT. 12:40 to back up by belief Jesus was crucified on a Wednesday, where can they give me a verse that says Jesus was resurrected on Sunday morning? The gospel writers tell of several different visits made by the disciples to the tomb on that first day of the week. In EVERY instance, they found the tomb EMPTY! An angel said, "He is not here: for he is risen, as he said" (MAT. 28:6). The angel did not say "He has just a few minutes ago risen" or "He rose an hour after sun up this morning" or "He was resurrected earlier this morning on the first day of the week." The first day of the week was WHEN the disciples DISCOVERED that he was risen, but nowhere does the Bible actually say this was the time of the resurrection. The only verse which seems to teach a Sunday morning resurrection is MRK 16:9, "Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene....... " But this verse does not say that early on the first day Jesus was "rising" or that he "did rise" at that time. It says that when the first day of the week came, he "WAS RISEN" - past perfect tense in the Greek. An action having taken place in the past but continuing in the present. Since there were no punctuation marks in the Greek manuscripts from which our NT is translated, the phrase "early the first day of the week" could just as correctly be linked with the time Jesus appeared to Mary. By simply placing the comma after the word risen , this verse would read: "Now when Jesus was risen, early the first day of the week he appeared first to Mary Magdalene." The following verses show Mark is recording some of the APPEARANCES of Jesus and not explaining on which day Jesus was resurrected. The Greek is very revealing in LUKE 23:54,56. The definate article "the" DOES NOT appear in verse 54. It reads in the Greek, "And day it was preparation and Sabbath was coming on" (Berry Interlinear). Verse 56 reads, "And having returned they prepared aromatics, and the Sabbath remained quiet, according to the commandment" (Berry Interlinear). The definate article "the" is in the Greek in verse 56. A small but somewhat meaningfull point. One Sabbath (the 15th of the first month - first day of the Unleavened Bread feast) is just "Sabbath" but when they rested according to the commandment Sabbath it is "the Sabbath" or "the Sabbath according to the commandment" - the fourth commandment of the big ten - the 7th day weekly Sabbath. A little more proof the writers of the Gospels knew there were TWO Sabbaths during the Passover week when Jesus was put to death. And in passing (will say more later on this point) the Greek word for "was coming on" in verse 54 is in the IMPERFECT tense. The Sabbath HAD come and was continuing. It is time for all people who call themselves after Jesus Christ to, "earnestly contend for the faith which was once delivered unto the saints" (Jude 3). Those who have the greater knowledge of God's word and are in positions of leadership need to STAND STRONG and LEAD in example and teaching. I call on Dr. Samuele Bacchiocchi to KEEP and observe the 14th of Nisan PASSOVER as the early first century true Christians did. I call upon him to observe the FESTIVALS of God as the early Christians did. I call upon him to strongly stand up and denounce the pagan festivals that his denomination is practicing. I call upon him to acknowledge the errors of E.G. White and to shout out loud and clear to the leaders and members of the Seventh Day Adventist Church that it is IDOLATRY to base their religion on the so call "inspired" writings of ELLEN WHITE. Yes, it may cost Dr. Sam his job he may find himself "put out" of the Adventist organization. But then he'll be "put into" the true body of Christ. Since all the above was written (back in 1986) it is a pleasure to state that Dr. Sam has indeed accepted the truth that the Festivals of God (as outlined in Lev.23) should be observed. He is busy promoting them, and for that courageous stand I praise the Lord. He does not hold E.G. White as infallible, and he does denounce the false pagan festivals such as Xmas and Easter. TO BE CONTINUED ..................... Written in 1986 |
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