I WAS FIRST SENT THIS BOOK BY JOHN R. CLARK, AND THEN LEFT IT AT TARA CHAPMAN'S HOUSE AFTER THE FEAST OF TABERNACLES LAST FALL OF 2012.
TARA HAS DONE A FINE JOB IN DEBUNKING SOME ODD AND STRANGE THEOLOGICAL IDEAS BY CLARK, WHO FANCIES HIMSELF BEING THE ICING ON THE CAKE OF HERBERT W. ARMSTRONG MINISTRY
Keith Hunt
"Davidic Covenant Genetic Code to Immortality" being the Mystery of God? A Debunk of the Book by John R. Clark
by Tara Lang Chapman
Roman Month and Year January 2013
Note: If you're short on time, you may skip down to my numbered point-by-point summary of major errors in John R. Clark's little book.
I just finished reading The Davidic Covenant Genetic Code to Immortality The Mystery of God by John R. Clark. Like some other self-exalting brethren that have led other brethren astray, John thinks Herbert W. Armstrong was "commissioned to begin the unveiling of the mystery of God..."(pg. v), when of course the truth is that many throughout the past two millennia have continually taught truth, and HWA himself learned the truth from people in the "Church of God Seventh Day." John Clark believes that Herbert Armstrong "...did the larger work of baking the cake, the smaller work of putting on the icing, is the Davidic genetic code to immortality book. This icing completes the work and makes the book sweet to the mouth" (ibid.)
He also believes that HWA's book about a human's incredible potential was the "little book" the apostle John wrote about in Revelation 10 (pg. 1). So now enters John Clark to put the icing on Herbert's baked cake. And the only reason Herbert didn't ice his own cake, according to John, is that "...he would not be given the time, to finish writing down the seven thunders and the mystery of God."
(I want to stop here briefly to add a note that anything within quotes is exactly as John wrote it. I understand he's got a lot of commas in wrong places, periods in wrong places, and so on and so forth. It was a difficult read, as he didn't even italicize or quote scripture verses, so anyone who is not already familiar with the scriptures would really have a hard time.)
So yeah, John believes he's the one to finish the so-called work of HWA. More insanely is that John believes we are (as of back in 2011 when the book is copyrighted) in the days of the seventh angel sounding! Can you believe it?! Yeah, that's right. All the other six trumpet plagues are past! We're at the end of the tribulation...or were about two years ago. Yeah, I missed the worst part on this earth ever, too. Didn't even notice! Don't feel so bad that you were oblivious. It wasn't so bad after all, and since we've been waiting for perhaps nearly two years since John Clark published the book, surely Christ will be back any day now, and we'll be changed. The angel has been sounding the last trumpet for quite some time.
It's a bit confusing, because while John stated that Herbert's book was the "little book," it also is implied that his own Davidic covenant book is the "little book." I guess it's all part of that cake and icing he and Herbert whipped up. John states of his book, "This book is all about publishing the gospel of God and proclaiming the mystery of God" (pg. 3). He failed to state what the seven thunders are or who might be able to tell us. Hmmm...maybe he's in cahoots with Ron Weinland who thought he was one of the Two Witnesses and authored God's Final Witness wherein he gave his own spin on what the seven thunders were (and the tribulation has definitely ended at some point in the past if one goes by what Ron's timeline was).
John claimed that Matthew 19:16 proves that Salvation (Jesus/Yeshua) our Lord said he was not God (pg. 6-7). Well, yeah, our Lord did ask why the fellow why he called him good, because only God is good, but the Most High is greater than the Son (which Salvation also stated elsewhere) and wasn't made flesh. What is good about living in a body of flesh? He still had to relieve his bowels, blow the dirt out of his nose, and wash his butt. Though John C. said that the Lord was not the good master, our Lord said at another time that there is only one person we should call our spiritual Father (the Most High God) and only one person we should call our spiritual master (the Son).
Now, John repeats over and over throughout his little book (pun intended) that the "Word" and "Christ" are the same and the one who lived with our Father God before the birth of "Jesus." The focal point of the entire book is that Jesus was the offspring of TWO humans: a human mother (Mary) and a human father (King David of Israel). John believes that God used a sperm of David's to fertilize Mary's ovum.
The reason why poor John believes this? Well, the starting point of his doctrine is the fact that a few verses refer to Jesus as the "son of David." Most of us know that this means David was a direct ancestor to Jesus but not so direct that it was David's sperm that conceived him. Did John overlook Matthew 1:1 that states not only that Jesus was the son of David but that David is the "son of Abraham." We all know with certainty that Abraham's sperm from his seed sack did not meet with Jesse's wife's (David's mother) ovum to conceive him! If John would have come to this understanding, he would have gone no further with this crazy doctrine. There's more to it, as he goes into detail of how Jesus was not promised to come through Solomon, like is commonly thought, but more on this later.
On pages 14 and 15 of John Clark's little book he contradicts himself and says something else foolish. He already had said that Christ was the Word but that Jesus was not yet Christ or the Son of God until after resurrection, but on page 14, when explaining John 4:25-26 when Jesus told the woman at the well that he was the Christ, John Clark admits that he was the Messiah but not yet God, only the begotten Son of God. Messiah and Christ are the same thing. In English meaning, they mean "Anointed One."
He then says that Jesus and the Word were "two different personalities." The Word's mind was just also inside Jesus' mind, John explains repeatedly throughout the book, like demons can possess a person's body and mind and also like God and Christ are in every Christian's mind. Well, he doesn't seem to totally understand how the latter works, as what that means is that we all have been begotten with that Spiritual Seed (Sperm/Spirit) and thus have a connection, but Father is still a separate person, and the Firstborn Son of God is still a separate person, and we each are our separate persons.
So ok, we have John saying that the Word existed before and became flesh, and yet Jesus is not the same person and is the offspring of Mary and David. Keep this in mind. And he says the Word's mind (or perhaps that the Word is only a mind and never had a spiritual body that he left behind) is also in the person of Jesus.
John makes this nonsensical statement (proving he's totally ignorant of the truth of the matter): "Understand! before Jesus was conceived in the womb of Mary, he was not one of the two Gods. The Word was one of the two original members of the Godhead! The Word like the one who became the Father had existed eternally. Listen! God was not the Father until his Son was born and a seed is not a son until he is born, the Word was not born, he was made flesh. Jesus was born and the Word was in the mind of Jesus before his birth" (pg. 21).
Never mind that John already said before that Christians who are begotten are already begotten sons. Never mind that he just said the Word was in the mind of Jesus before his birth but yet was not born. Never mind that he elsewhere in his little book that quotes from Proverbs 8 that personifies wisdom as our Lord, the Son of the Most High God, and comments on what a superb relationship the two of the had, and so thus admitting that wisdom there personifies our Lord. That chapter speaks of him being "brought forth" and so on.
John misunderstands Matthew 4:9-10 where Satan offers Jesus rulership over kingdoms if only he will worship him. He thinks it proves that Jesus was not God (true, he was human, too, as his mother was human), because if he was, then those things were already his. Well, hello John! Father was still in Heaven above, and those things are His, are they not? And yet that doesn't stop Satan from wanting the top place in the Universe. It is stated in scripture AFTER Jesus' resurrection and ascension that Satan is the "god of this world." Obviously when Jesus was walking in the flesh he was in a position of temptation. He was indeed human, too, but that doesn't negate the fact that his Father was God.
John thinks that the son after David that was to build a house (temple) was not talking about Solomon. But those of us who know the scriptures well know that Solomon did indeed build a temple (manmade) for God, and he did place his spiritual presence there (like he does with Christians who make up his temple now). He tried to prove that it was talking of Jesus and quoted scripture if he committed iniquity that he would be chastened with the rod of men. Well Jesus didn't commit iniquity, yet he still was chastened for our sake. And what sort of threat to Christ would that be, when iniquity would cause a much bigger punishment, in that he would not receive his glory back as he had with Father before? Of course John doesn't believe Jesus was with Father in heaven before.
On page 40 John quoted scripture in 1st Chr. 28 where God did tell David that Solomon would build a house for him. So John C. said that since Solomon ended up disobeying later down the road, he disqualified himself. He said for his disobedience the kingdom would be given to another son. That is false, of course, for those of us who know the real story know that the tribes beside Judah (and those of Levi and Benjamin that stayed behind) rebelled and were ruled by Jeroboam. Jeroboam was not a son of David. Also, Solomon's kingdom was not rent away until his son Rehoboam was reigning.
John C. wrote, "Jesus was of the kingly genetic bloodline, that came through Nathan and Mary his mother. Jesus is not only the king, but also the high priest, therefore to fulfill the law of the priesthood , Jesus must also come from the bloodline of Aaron the Levite" (pg. 45).
Wow! That is quite a bold statement. There are two genealogies for Jesus mentioned in the bible, as many already know, one recorded by Luke and the other by Matthew. One is Mary's genealogy, and the other is Joseph's who, although not Jesus' biological father, reared Jesus as his son. Mary's ancestry does go back to David's son Nathan. Joseph's goes back to Solomon's. Both of them go back to Israel's (Jacob's) son Judah. Neither goes back to Levi. I don't see any clear evidence from looking at the genealogy that the Levitical bloodline came into play at all. I could be wrong about this, but I don't see it. It definitely goes back to Judah, though, and not Levi of whose tribe are the Levites.
Secondly John's bold statement that Jesus "must also come" from the Levitical bloodline has absolutely no basis in fact. I know of no prophecy that foretold of Jesus being born from the Levitical bloodline, only that he would come forth from Judah. I want to further show John's extreme error by quoting something he said shortly afterward, after quoting in the book of Hebrews of how Jesus would be made a high priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec:
"Some teachers believe that Jesus was already the high priest of Melchisedec, prince of peace and king of Salem, God of the old testament. But if he were already Melchisedec the high priest, why would God by an oath make him an high priest after the order of Melchisedec? Jesus was not made the high priest, until after his death and resurrection, he had to be made perfect first" (pg. 45-46).
I'm one of those who believes that Jesus was the high priest called Melchisedec, who Hebrews says had no beginning, no father and mother, etc. If one reads the sixth and seventh chapters of Hebrews, you can get a real good idea that that Melchisedec was indeed our Lord. It also clearly lays out how Levi was not even born yet nor his seed even in Jacob's sack when Abraham met Melchisedec (the time recorded in scripture). For that matter, Jacob wasn't in Isaac's sack, and Isaac wasn't even conceived in Sarai/Sarah yet! Those chapters are all about how the Melchisedec order of priesthood is superior to the Levitical priesthood. It also states clearly that Jesus sprang forth from the line of Judah of which Moses spoke nothing about concerning the priesthood. Read it! Prove it for yourself. The big point is that Jesus did NOT come from the Levitical line and that he most definitely did not need to come from that line, because the Melchisedec order (organization) of priesthood is BETTER! And it was around BEFORE the Levitical one! I'm not sure why John is so confused about why Jesus was made high priest after the order of Melchisedec if he were already the priest. Uhhhhh….remember, God made a physical/fleshly/carnal covenant with Moses and the physical nation of Israel with the Levitical priesthood. When that covenant was instated, the Melchisedec order was temporarily ended and the order of the Levitical priesthood was established. When the new and better covenant was instated, we returned to the order of Melchisedec! Woo-hoo! Praise God our Father and our Lord Salvation the Firstborn!
I'm going to love explaining this next bit, as I love the study of genetics, and what John said about how it works frustrates me greatly. John is very deficient in his understanding of genetics. He's also deficient in his understanding of God's law concerning reproduction. I'm going to clear up the confusion that he's led people into in his little book.
So he wrote about how God made different creatures to reproduce after their own kind, etc., including man, and then instructed them on the right way to live, but man rejected the good knowledge and cross-breeding animals and plants, etc. And then, "These genetically altered species are not pure and this causes disease and deformity. Mankind has also changed their own genetics by cross-breeding and interbreeding. Because of breaking God's law of genetics, their life span has decreased from hundred of years to about seventy years, and by this sin mankind has brought upon themselves scores of diseases and birth defects, man always thinks he is wiser than God."
Continuing on further along, after quoting how the end of days will be like in the days of Noah, "What is this universal evil and corruption Jesus described? Eating food, drinking, marrying is not evil in themselves, but eating and drinking in an improper way, eating meats not created for human consumption, drunkenness, sexual misconduct and interbreeding between the races is taking the fruit of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, that fruit leads to pain, corruption, and death. God will correct this generation of men, because they are disrupting the genetic characteristic code that God ordained for each human species. It needs to be understood that mixing genetics can change genetic characteristics of the human mind, leading to mental illness such as violence, drunkenness, homosexuality, and hostility against the races. God destroyed every living thing from the face of the earth, but spared Noah and his family. Noah and his family [wife, sons and their wives] were the only unblemished or perfect original white species. God put within Noah's sons [Ham, Japhath and their wives] the genetics required to start two different family race of people. God separated the sons of Noah and their wives, so that they would not intermarry. God wanted to keep the races genetically pure, this was necessary for God's plan of salvation, for he had chosen Shem to be the bloodline from which Jesus would be born. As we will see in chapter five, God was determined to keep Shem's bloodline genetically pure."
Oh wow…just reading it again as I typed it aroused much anger and frustration within me. It bothers me greatly how big of a lie this all is and how absolutely ignorant John is concerning these things (I'll give him the benefit of the doubt that he's just ignorant and not just downright stupid or deliberately deceitful). I've studied and written about genetics for several years now. Let me make this clear: When Adam and Eve and all the other animals and plants were first created, there was no sin and so no bad mutations. Adam's and Eve's sons and daughters could marry and reproduce some pretty healthy stock. I'm sure they were all beautiful children who looked a lot alike. More and more time passed, though, with more sin. Anything we do mentally and/or physically affects our DNA in either positive or negative ways. IF A PERSON MARRIES ONE WITH A DNA SET TOO SIMILAR TO HIM OR HER, THEY ARE LOOKING TO REPRODUCE CHILDREN WITH HIGHER CHANCES OF INHERITING THOSE SAME SIN MUTATIONS. This is FACT! If you study purebred dogs, you'll find that they have much higher rates of debilitating diseases and deformities than "mutts" (mixed breeds). Incest (close marrying) reproduces children or animal babies with very poor genetics, often leading to some very serious physical or mental disabilities and retardations. If you study the various peoples of the worlds, you'll find that different groups of people have higher rates of various diseases. When a male has bad mutations on various genes and then marries a like female who has those same mutations, you are all but guaranteed that your child will inherit that same mutation. Now, I can get really deep into this with expressed traits versus carried traits and so on, but there are plenty of resources out there if you want to do your own research. The main point is that if one parent has a mutation, and the other doesn't, the child has a greater chance of not inheriting (and also a greater chance of not being a non-expressing carrier, meaning he doesn't express the gene mutation himself but can carry it onto his offspring) that mutation. VARYING ONE'S GENETICS IS ACTUALLY MORE PHYSICALLY HEALTHFUL!
The law of Moses forbade the people of Israel to marry foreigners on the basis that they would cause them to reject God and follow their spouse's pagan gods. It's a spiritual issue. The law of Moses also forbade brothers and sisters from marrying. That one is a physical issue, and it's for the reason I explained above. Now if keeping it pure physically was of utmost importance, as John states it is, then the best marriage would be between siblings. And if we had untainted genetics, then it's true that sibling marriages would be the best thing. Now most of us know that the physical law of Moses is quite out of date, and it's now bad to marry close cousins. For that matter, it's becoming riskier to marry anyone of the same nation. The genetics are just that bad (because the sin is just that bad now). So the TRUTH in the physical sense is the exact OPPOSITE of what John taught in his little book. As for mental defects, that is a spiritual matter, just as physical defects are a physical matter (though both can affect the other). If a Godly white person married a Godly black person, they ought to have a pretty good physical and mental outcome in their offspring. And I'd rather my children marry a Godly person of a different family group or nation any day over an unGodly person of the same family group.
It might also be interesting to readers to know that one of Moses' two wives was an Ethiopian woman (black), and Miriam (Moses' sister) gave Moses a hard time about it, and God was provoked to anger and punished Miriam with leprosy. And as for Jesus' bloodline being pure…well, King David, with whose sperm John C. thinks Jesus was conceived, was grandson to a gentile Moabite woman named Ruth. She married the Israelite man Obed and gave birth to David's father Jesse. So the Jewish (Judah) David was one quarter Moabite, which would make Jesus an eighth Moabite if we believe John C.'s story. So much for Jesus being a purebred Jew. In reality Ruth was still in Jesus' genealogy because of his human mother Mary. Oh and the bible also states that David was conceived in sin, meaning he didn't come from perfect DNA. Every one after Adam and Eve was born "in sin," meaning we have sin-tainted DNA.
Oh, I also wanted to comment on the Ham, Shem, and Japheth statement. It's true that God wanted those sons to spread out, but the main reason was to replenish the earth and for people not to crowd all together and use their ever-increasing knowledge that comes with a large populous to do evil again with their advanced technology. God didn't need to zap Ham and Japheth with different genes at that time. That is ludicrous! The changes took place over time, just as in any kind of creature. It's called micro-evolution aka adaptation. The blacks live on the continent of Africa in the hot sun. It makes sense that their bodies would adapt to that so they don't die out from skin cancer and such. It makes sense for whites living in colder places farther from the equator and direct sunlight to stay white so they don't die out from vitamin D deficient disease. Have you noticed how whales and seals have thick blubber for making living in polar regions possible and that dogs who originate from colder areas have thick coats of fur?
It gets even better. On page 58 of John C.'s little book he said, "The genetically perfect ovum egg from Mary would be impregnated by the genetically perfect sperm [one] from the loins of King David; this is the mystery which surrounds the conception of Jesus."
Did you laugh, too? Well not only the part about both Mary's egg and David's sperm being genetically perfect (ha!) but that the sperm came from David's sack. That's interesting since his sack would have decayed in the grave long before that. Sure, God has his DNA makeup on file, so He could have done that, but according to John C. the sperm came from David's sack.
John C. went on quite a bit about nothing being impossible for God and that he purified the genes. Well, okay then. I guess it really wouldn't matter how many gentiles in the genealogy background there were then, if God was simply going to do some purifying, anyway. Give me a break…
On page 61 he said, "The Word was not Jesus and Jesus was not the Word, rather the Spirit mind of God [the Word] was in Jesus, thus Jesus had the mind of God in him. Philippians 2:5-Let this mind be in your which was also in Christ Jesus…"
There is so much throughout the scriptures that I could quote here, but I'll keep it simple by directing you to the first chapter of the gospel of John, verses 1-18, which should suffice. Notice things like verse 11 and verse 12 (and we know which name it is, the transliterated Greek being Jesus, the Hebrew Yeshua, but the true English meaning being Salvation). That is what He was named when he was made flesh. He was MADE FLESH or BECAME FLESH. Period. He left his spirit body behind in heaven.
Yeah, we who are begotten sons of God have the mind of God or the mind of Christ. This is just saying all who are in that Royal Family, whether it is Father, His Firstborn, or any of us who are merely begotten/conceived have that same Spirit, the Holy or Sacred or Hallowed Spirit. It's really no different than human sons conceived of a man and having the same mind as the father. That's not to say they are not individuals but that they all have the same way of thinking and think as one where it matters. It might be helpful for you to read I Corinthians 2:11-16 to get a better understanding. Read it, pray, and meditate upon it to understand. Perhaps read through it a few times.
Anyone in the God Family, even those simply begotten have the Spirit of God within them and the "mind of God" or "mind of Christ" (same thing, because it's the same Spirit in any member of the God Family). Men tend to think the same way, apes think the way apes think, dogs tend to think a different way, and so on. No big mystery here. Dogs understand dog things, because they have a dog mind enabling them. Man understands man things due to possessing a man spirit, and those with God's Spirit can understand God things, because the God Spirit enables them to do so. MEDITATE ON THIS: IF THE WORD/CHRIST WAS WITH FATHER GOD IN THE BEGINNING, AND THEN HIS MIND WENT INTO THE BODY OF THE MAN JESUS WHO HAD ANOTHER MIND OF HIS OWN, AND THEN JESUS ALSO BECAME THE CHRIST AND WAS RESURRECTED AND ASCENDED TO LIVE WITH GOD, THEN THAT MEANS BOTH THE WORD AND JESUS ARE HAVING TO SHARE A SPIRIT BODY OR ELSE THERE ARE REALLY TWO OF THEM IN SEPARATE SPIRITUAL BODIES UP THERE WITH FATHER. TWO CHRISTS, SINCE THE SCRIPTURES MAKE CLEAR THAT JESUS IS THE CHRIST, EVEN THOUGH JOHN R. CLARK ADMITS THE CHRIST/WORD EXISTED BEFORE. IF THERE WERE TWO DIFFERENT PERSON'S MINDS IN THE BODY OF JESUS, THEN JESUS EITHER COULD HAVE REJECTED THE WORD'S BEING THERE AND SINNED SO THAT THE WORD THEN LOST OUT ON GOING BACK TO SHARING FATHER'S GLORY WITH HIM, OR THE WORD COULD HAVE OVERPOWERED JESUS' WILL, THEREBY NOT GIVING JESUS A TRUE CHOICE IN OBEDIENCE OR NOT. AND NOW THEY BOTH STILL MUST SHARE A BODY IN HEAVEN ABOVE, WHICH IS REALLY NOT FAIR AND CERTAINLY NOT THE HIGHEST HONOR, SINCE EACH OF WE OTHER SONS OF GOD WILL GET A BODY THAT WE DO NOT HAVE TO SHARE WITH ANOTHER INDIVIDUAL.
See what folly John has exhibited. The man did NOT sit down and meditate on any of this before he wrote his "little book." His little book was not God-inspired, but rather demon-inspired. He may very well be a begotten son of God, but like some other sons of God he is allowing the satanic spirit that all the fallen ones share (not that each one is Satan himself but that they all have one and the same mind of disobedience). Understanding this "one mind" concept yet? John is letting the spirit of anti-Christ sit in the temple of God (John's body) and call himself God and thereby deceive John into thinking he's something special. He's let that spirit of pride come in, and we can know this for certain by reading the beginning of his little book to see how he exalts himself.
Further on the same page (61) he again states that Jesus is called the son of David, because David's sperm united with Mary's ovum. I already exposed that absurdity.
So then on the next page he quotes from I John chapter 4 and II John verse 7 about people being deceivers and antichrist who confesses not that Jesus Christ came in the flesh. Well indeed that is true, but no one is saying that the Word was not made flesh. John says that such deceived persons "…teach that he was Spirit in the flesh, fully God and fully man…" Well, of course I've heard people word it that way, but we of course know that is like saying someone is fully black and fully white. What people mean (or should mean) is that His paternity was of God and his maternity was of [wo]man, because that is the truth of the matter. We can read all through history about supposed sons of God, men who were supposedly born of a woman but fathered by a god. This is the truth concerning Christ. He left his spirit-composed body behind to enter into a flesh-composed body. God is a perfectly capable genetic engineer and can mix kinds correctly, and so this is what he did. Now being in a body of flesh, the One named Salvation (Jesus/Yeshua) was tempted by sin and had free will to obey and return to his glory or to sin and bring the whole plan down. Of course that would have been highly unlikely as he knew the truth and I'm sure very much wanted again to be second in command over the universe and truly loved His Father. It's deceiving to say that Christ didn't come in the flesh, but it's also deceiving to say that he was just flesh. That would be God's showing partiality to persons (which the scriptures teach he doesn't), because why the man Jesus and not any one of the rest of us to get the Word mind to take up residence with us so that we can share with him as second-in-command over the universe. And of course, you have that problem I already mentioned that the man Jesus might not agree with the Word's wanting to obey God and so a force upon his will. And the third problem was also mentioned that they both would be indeed sharing a body throughout eternity as second-in-command. WHEN YOU MEDITATE UPON THIS, IT REALLY BECOMES CLEAR HOW INSANE AND ILLOGICAL THIS DOCTRINE IS. It also might be worthy to note here that Jesus Christ usually called himself the Son of Man and that the same had been in heaven with God. More proof that Jesus is the same individual as the Word and Christ.
Not really relevant to this topic but a serious error nonetheless is that John R. Clark stated that Jesus died in 31 A.D., which is not accurate, although it's a common error among people (pg. 70). He died in 30 A.D.
Get this! "We believe that Jesus Christ is in the Godhead as the Son of God, and the Word of God" (pg. 79). See what I mean? He stated there that Jesus Christ is the Son of God and the Word of God. So what happened to the original person the Word/Christ? Or rather what happened to Jesus? One of them just disappeared from the picture, or they are rather having to share the same spiritual body. What a loon! I can only shake my head. And who is "we?" I hope not many people agree with this guy.
SUMMARY
1. John R. Clark is a self-exalting brother in the Church who thinks Herbert W. Armstrong baked a cake and that he (John) has now iced the cake to finish it. He believed that in 2011 (copyright year of book) we were in the time of the seventh (the last) angel trumpeting, which would mean the tribulation was coming to an end, and that his Davidic Covenant book is the "little book" spoken of in Revelation 10.
2. He believes that the "Word" and "Christ" are the same individual who existed with Father God from the beginning but that "Jesus" was just a man and not the Word or Christ, though he later became the Christ. He believes that Jesus was the product of King David's of Israel sperm and Mary's ovum, and that is why Jesus was called the son of David. He doesn't understand what that means. Does he surely think that David, being called the son of Abraham in Matthew 1:1, is the direct product of Abraham's sperm?
3. John C. wrote, "Jesus was of the kingly genetic bloodline, that came through Nathan and Mary his mother. Jesus is not only the king, but also the high priest, therefore to fulfill the law of the priesthood , Jesus must also come from the bloodline of Aaron the Levite" (pg. 45). He also stated that Jesus could not be Melchisadec. There was no prophecy that foretold of that, however. Also both the genealogies listed (one from Mary and the other from his earthly adoptive father Joseph, though not his bloodline) go back to Judah. Jesus was the high priest called Melchisedec, who Hebrews says had no beginning, no father and mother, etc. If one reads the sixth and seventh chapters of Hebrews, you can get a real good idea that that Melchisedec was indeed our Lord. It also clearly lays out how Levi was not even born yet nor his seed even in Jacob's sack when Abraham met Melchisedec (the time recorded in scripture). For that matter, Jacob wasn't in Isaac's sack, and Isaac wasn't even conceived in Sarai/Sarah yet! Those chapters are all about how the Melchisedec order of priesthood is superior to the Levitical priesthood. It also states clearly that Jesus sprang forth from the line of Judah of which Moses spoke nothing about concerning the priesthood. Read it! Prove it for yourself. The big point is that Jesus did NOT come from the Levitical line and that he most definitely did not need to come from that line, because the Melchisedec order (organization) of priesthood is BETTER! And it was around BEFORE the Levitical one! I'm not sure why John is so confused about why Jesus was made high priest after the order of Melchisedec if he were already the priest. Uhhhhh….remember, God made a physical/fleshly/carnal covenant with Moses and the physical nation of Israel with the Levitical priesthood. When that covenant was instated, the Melchisedec order was temporarily ended and the order of the Levitical priesthood was established. When the new and better covenant was instated, we returned to the order of Melchisedec!
4. He believes that Jesus' 100% human genetics had to be pure and from the Jewish bloodline with no intermarriage, yet if David's sperm sired Jesus, then he was one-eighth Moabite, because David's grandmother Ruth was a Moabite, making David a quarter Moabite. The law of Moses forbade foreign marriage on spiritual grounds that those who worshiped other gods would turn believers from God and didn't have anything to do with physical genetics. The law of Moses forbade sibling marriages, because marrying too close is what causes problems. Even today marrying cousins or even ones of the same nation is causing too many like mutations to be passed on in double to offspring. It's also seen in other animals like dogs that purebreds have far more genetic diseases and deformities. Furthermore Moses himself had an Ethiopian (black) wife (in addition to his Midianite wife), and when Miriam gave Moses a hard time about it, God punished Miriam with leprosy. John R. Clark's teaching that all interracial marriage is wrong is unbiblical.
5. On page 61 he said, "The Word was not Jesus and Jesus was not the Word, rather the Spirit mind of God [the Word] was in Jesus, thus Jesus had the mind of God in him. Philippians 2:5-Let this mind be in your which was also in Christ Jesus…"
It might be helpful for you to read I Corinthians 2:11-16 to get a better understanding. Read it, pray, and meditate upon it to understand. Perhaps read through it a few times.
Anyone in the God Family, even those simply begotten have the Spirit of God within them and the "mind of God" or "mind of Christ" (same thing, because it's the same Spirit in any member of the God Family). Men tend to think the same way, apes think the way apes think, dogs tend to think a different way, and so on. No big mystery here. Dogs understand dog things, because they have a dog mind enabling them. Man understands man things due to possessing a man spirit, and those with God's Spirit can understand God things, because the God Spirit enables them to do so. MEDITATE ON THIS: IF THE WORD/CHRIST WAS WITH FATHER GOD IN THE BEGINNING, AND THEN HIS MIND WENT INTO THE BODY OF THE MAN JESUS WHO HAD ANOTHER MIND OF HIS OWN, AND THEN JESUS ALSO BECAME THE CHRIST AND WAS RESURRECTED AND ASCENDED TO LIVE WITH GOD, THEN THAT MEANS BOTH THE WORD AND JESUS ARE HAVING TO SHARE A SPIRIT BODY OR ELSE THERE ARE REALLY TWO OF THEM IN SEPARATE SPIRITUAL BODIES UP THERE WITH FATHER. TWO CHRISTS, SINCE THE SCRIPTURES MAKE CLEAR THAT JESUS IS THE CHRIST, EVEN THOUGH JOHN R. CLARK ADMITS THE CHRIST/WORD EXISTED BEFORE. IF THERE WERE TWO DIFFERENT PERSON'S MINDS IN THE BODY OF JESUS, THEN JESUS EITHER COULD HAVE REJECTED THE WORD'S BEING THERE AND SINNED SO THAT THE WORD THEN LOST OUT ON GOING BACK TO SHARING FATHER'S GLORY WITH HIM, OR THE WORD COULD HAVE OVERPOWERED JESUS' WILL, THEREBY NOT GIVING JESUS A TRUE CHOICE IN OBEDIENCE OR NOT. AND NOW THEY BOTH STILL MUST SHARE A BODY IN HEAVEN ABOVE, WHICH IS REALLY NOT FAIR AND CERTAINLY NOT THE HIGHEST HONOR, SINCE EACH OF WE OTHER SONS OF GOD WILL GET A BODY THAT WE DO NOT HAVE TO SHARE WITH ANOTHER INDIVIDUAL.
Prove all things! Keep Christ as your only Church Head. Do NOT follow after a man leader who exalts himself in any way. Stay cautious!
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